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A 55-year-old man with alcohol use disorder presents with a 2-day history of confusion. Onexamination, you note a sixth nerve palsy and a horizontal nystagmus. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Subdural hematoma
B. Cerebellar hemorrhage
C. Wernicke encephalopathy
D. Hepatic encephalopathy
E. Cerebellar degeneration
Answer: C
Explanation:
Wernicke encephalopathy is a medical emergency caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, most often seen in chronic alcohol use. The classic triad is:
* Confusion
* Oculomotor dysfunction (e.g., nystagmus, cranial nerve palsies)
* Ataxia
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology and Psychiatry, "Wernicke Encephalopathy" Section:
"Wernicke encephalopathy is diagnosed clinically. Symptoms include ophthalmoplegia (e.g., CN VI palsy), horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion. Immediate parenteral thiamine is indicated before glucose administration." MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 75-1: Neurologic Emergencies):
"Candidates must recognize Wernicke encephalopathy in at-risk individuals and initiate urgent thiamine replacement." Other choices like cerebellar degeneration (A) and hepatic encephalopathy (D) are more chronic and lack the characteristic eye findings. Subdural hematoma (B) and hemorrhage (E) may mimic confusion but are less likely with these neurologic signs and history.
NEW QUESTION # 141
A 43-year-old man comes to your office for the first time. He has not seen a doctor in over 5 years and has no known past medical history. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and the remainder of his examination is normal. As part of the initial visit, you order some screening blood work that reveals a fasting blood glucose of 6.3 mmol/L (3.3-5.8) and a hemoglobin A1c of 6.1% (4-6). Which one of the following is the best next step?
A. Test capillary blood glucose 4 times a day.
B. Perform a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test.
C. Order thyrotroph (thyroid-stimulating hormone) level.
D. Order a urine albumin:creatinine ratio.
E. Order an exercise stress test.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient's lab results suggest impaired fasting glucose and an elevated A1c just below the threshold for diabetes. The gold standard to confirm diabetes in such intermediate cases is the 75 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Diabetes Mellitus" Section:
"If A1c is in the 6.0-6.4% range or fasting glucose 6.1-6.9 mmol/L, a 75 g OGTT is recommended to establish the diagnosis of diabetes or confirm impaired glucose tolerance." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-4: Diabetes):
"Candidates must correctly apply diabetes screening and diagnostic criteria and follow up abnormal results with appropriate confirmatory testing." Urine ACR (C) is useful in diagnosed diabetes, not for initial screening. TSH (A), capillary glucose testing (B), and exercise testing (E) are not indicated at this stage.
NEW QUESTION # 142
A 30-year-old man (assigned female at birth) presents to your clinic for a periodic health examination. He declines a gynecologic examination because such examinations lead to intense emotional distress for him. He also believes that he does not require a Papanicolaou (Pap) test because he is not in a sexual relationship with a man. After acknowledging the patient's distress and providing education regarding the need for Pap screening, which one of the following would be the best next step?
A. Record his directives in the chart.
B. Advise him to reconsider his decision and to allow the examination to proceed.
C. Ask permission to learn more about his distress in a subsequent appointment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is essential to balance medical guidelines with trauma-informed, patient-centered care. This includes offering future discussion while respecting boundaries. Acknowledging distress and offering to explore more in the future (B) preserves trust and autonomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM and LGBTQ2S+ Health Section:
"For transgender individuals, screening decisions should be personalized. Trauma-informed care includes validating distress and deferring invasive exams when not urgent." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-2: Cultural Safety):
"Candidates must prioritize patient-centered communication and consent, particularly when distress or marginalization may influence healthcare interactions." Option A is coercive. Option C is documentation only and lacks engagement or exploration.
NEW QUESTION # 143
A 32-year-old woman presents to the office with questions related to the mRNA vaccines that are approved for COVID-19. She is a health care worker. She gave birth to a healthy child 2 months ago. Before being immunized, which one of the following is the most important detail to elicit from the patient's history?
A. Current immunosuppression.
B. Work in a medical unit caring for patients with COVID-19.
C. Previous anaphylactic reaction to vaccine components.
D. Presently breastfeeding.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most important pre-vaccination history to elicit is any previous anaphylaxis to vaccine components.
mRNA COVID-19 vaccines (e.g., Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna) may contain polyethylene glycol (PEG), a potential allergen. This is a contraindication to administration.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Disease & Immunization Chapter:
"Absolute contraindications to mRNA COVID-19 vaccination include a documented anaphylactic reaction to a component of the vaccine such as polyethylene glycol (PEG)." MCCQE1 Objectives - Population Health > Preventive Medicine > Immunizations:
"The candidate must be able to assess for contraindications prior to immunization, including anaphylaxis to previous vaccines or components." Breastfeeding and occupational exposure (Options B and D) do not preclude vaccination. Current immunosuppression (Option C) may affect vaccine efficacy but is not a contraindication unless specifically advised.
NEW QUESTION # 144
A 67-year-old man underwent his first endoscopy. He has long-term reflux and heartburn, treatedintermittently with antacids. Biopsies of the distal esophagus reveal Barrett epithelium. Which one of the following is most important in determining the frequency of surveillance endoscopy?
A. Depth of intestinal metaplasia
B. Stricture formation
C. Length of Barrett segment
D. Grade of dysplasia
E. Family history of gastrointestinal malignancy
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most important factor in determining the surveillance interval in Barrett esophagus is the presence and grade of dysplasia (e.g., none, low-grade, high-grade). High-grade dysplasia requires more frequent monitoring or intervention due to the risk of progression to esophageal adenocarcinoma.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, Barrett Esophagus:
"Surveillance intervals depend on histologic findings. No dysplasia: q3-5 years; low-grade: q6-12 months; high-grade: consider endoscopic resection or ablation." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Gastroenterology:
"Candidates must identify the risk of progression in Barrett esophagus and apply appropriate surveillance strategies based on dysplasia." Length of the segment (A) may influence risk but not surveillance frequency alone. Other options (B, C, E) are less determinative.
NEW QUESTION # 145
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