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Title: Free PDF 2026 MCCQE: Perfect Pass MCCQE Part 1 Exam Exam [Print This Page]
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Title: Free PDF 2026 MCCQE: Perfect Pass MCCQE Part 1 Exam Exam
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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q163-Q168):NEW QUESTION # 163
A 55-year-old woman presents to the office with a 2-month history of right shoulder pain and limited function that started after she began an upper body weight training program. Examination shows tenderness inferior to the acromion. She has full passive range of motion of the shoulder but significant pain with abduction from
30¡ã to 120¡ã of arc. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The presentation is consistent with rotator cuff tendinopathy or subacromial impingement. The painful arc between 30¡ã-120¡ã with preserved passive ROM suggests this. Ultrasound is the preferred initial imaging modality due to its availability, safety, and ability to visualize soft tissues dynamically.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Orthopedics, "Shoulder Pathologies" Section:
"In rotator cuff injuries or impingement syndromes, initial imaging with musculoskeletal ultrasound is appropriate. It can identify tendinopathy, partial tears, or subacromial bursitis." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 84-7: Musculoskeletal Pain):
"Candidates should initiate workup for rotator cuff or impingement syndromes with ultrasound as the first- line test, reserving more invasive or costly procedures for unresolved or complex cases." CT (A) is used for bony detail, not soft tissues. Arthroscopy (C) is invasive and therapeutic. Arthrography (D) is outdated and largely replaced by MRI or ultrasound.

NEW QUESTION # 164
A 66-year-old woman suffering from a progressive neurological disease is admitted to a long-term care centre. Her husband does not wish to participate in discussions about the seriousness of his wife's disease and is convinced that she will soon come back home. During his 2nd visit to the centre, he gives you a cheque for a substantial sum made out to you, the treating physician, for your own research. Which one of the following is the best response to your patient's husband?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Physicians must avoid conflicts of interest and maintain professional boundaries with patients and their families. Accepting a personal financial gift, regardless of intent, is inappropriate and unethical.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Ethics and Professionalism:
"ersonal gifts of significant value from patients or families should be declined to avoid real or perceived conflicts of interest." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-3: Professionalism and Boundaries):
"Candidates must maintain ethical boundaries and refuse financial incentives that could compromise or appear to compromise clinical judgment." Other options (A, B, E) still involve a conflict. D is helpful, but the ethical obligation is to decline the cheque directly.
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NEW QUESTION # 165
A 6-year-old girl is found to have a blood pressure of 130/75 mm Hg. She was born prematurely at 32 weeks' gestation and required ventilation. There is a family history of hypertension in 3 grandparents. Clinical examination reveals a grade 1/6 mid-systolic murmur, no renal bruits, and femoral pulses are difficult to feel.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The combination of upper extremity hypertension and weak femoral pulses is classic for aortic coarctation. A soft systolic murmur may be present. This condition often becomes apparent during routine screening in school-aged children.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics / Cardiology:
"Coarctation of the aorta presents with upper limb hypertension, diminished femoral pulses, and sometimes a systolic murmur. BP discrepancy is key." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Congenital Heart Disease):
"Candidates must recognize signs of aortic coarctation, including weak lower limb pulses and systemic hypertension in children." VSD (A) typically presents with a louder murmur. Reflux nephropathy (B) may cause hypertension but without femoral pulse discrepancy. Renal artery thrombosis (C) is rare. Essential hypertension (D) is less likely in this age group with these findings.
-

NEW QUESTION # 166
A 38-year-old marathon runner presents to your office with a 6-month history of increasing right hip pain.
The pain is worse with acclivity and has prevented him from running for the last 4 months. He denies fever or chills. His wife adds that she is concerned because he is increasingly disengaged with the family and not interested in other activities he usually enjoys, including sex. Which one of the following is the best next step in management?
Answer: E
Explanation:
In a patient presenting with physical symptoms (e.g., hip pain) and prominent psychosocial red flags - loss of interest, decreased libido, and withdrawal - the next step is to screen for depression. Somatization is common in mood disorders.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Depression:
"atients with depression may present with somatic complaints. A thorough psychosocial assessment is essential in such cases, particularly when symptoms interfere with functioning." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Mood Disorders:
"Candidates must consider depression in patients with non-specific physical symptoms and reduced interest or motivation, particularly with social withdrawal." Imaging or physiotherapy may be needed later, but the most urgent and informative step is psychiatric screening.

NEW QUESTION # 167
A 65-year-old woman presents to the office for follow-up regarding vaginal bleeding. Her last visit was 2 months ago. At that visit, the results of a pelvic examination and a Papanicolaou test were normal. She also had an endometrial biopsy but there was "insufficient material for diagnosis." She reports that she is still losing small amounts of blood almost every day. On history, she has been taking continuous combined hormone replacement therapy for 10 years because of vasomotor symptoms. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Persistent postmenopausal bleeding requires thorough evaluation. An inadequate endometrial biopsy result does not rule out pathology. Hysteroscopy allows for direct visualization and targeted biopsy and is the gold standard when biopsy is non-diagnostic.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Abnormal Uterine Bleeding and Endometrial Cancer" Section:
"ersistent bleeding with insufficient biopsy requires further evaluation, preferably via hysteroscopy and directed biopsy. This is especially important in patients on HRT or with risk factors for endometrial pathology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics & Gynecology > 82-9: Postmenopausal Bleeding):
"Candidates must investigate abnormal bleeding in postmenopausal women with hysteroscopy when endometrial sampling is non-diagnostic." Changing hormones (A), reducing progestin (E), or performing colposcopy (C) are not appropriate without confirming the cause of bleeding.

NEW QUESTION # 168
......
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