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Title: Quiz 2026 AAPC CPC: Pass-Sure Training Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam M [Print This Page]
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Title: Quiz 2026 AAPC CPC: Pass-Sure Training Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam M
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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:
TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 2
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 3
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 4
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 5
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.
Topic 6
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 7
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 8
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 9
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 10
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 11
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 12
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 13
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 14
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 15
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 16
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 17
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 18
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 19
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:

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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q89-Q94):NEW QUESTION # 89


Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 874276
What E/M code is reported?
Answer: B
Explanation:
To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).
* History:
* The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.
* Examination:
* The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (appears tired).
* Medical Decision Making:
* The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem (shortness of breath and weakness) with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.
Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.
Why other options are incorrect:
* 99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.
* 99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM (moderate or high complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn't support this level of service.
References:
* CPT Codes 99281-99285: Emergency department visits
* 1995 and 1997 Documentation Guidelines for Evaluation and Management Services: These guidelines provide detailed criteria for selecting the appropriate E/M code based on history, examination, and MDM.
* AAPC Coder's Desk Reference: This resource provides detailed information on coding guidelines and procedures.

NEW QUESTION # 90
An 8-year-old patient is placed under general anesthesia for treatment of a right orbital fracture due to a traumatic fall to the nose and face from a swing set. An on-call otolaryngologist is asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination to evaluate the patient. A mild nasal fracture is the diagnosis given by the otolaryngologist.
What is the CPTand ICD-10-CM coding for the otolaryngologist's services?
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The otolaryngologist was asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination of the patient under general anesthesia to evaluate for injuries sustained from a traumatic fall.
CPTCode 92502 is appropriate for a general otolaryngologic examination under general anesthesia. This code is used specifically when an ENT examination is performed under anesthesia, as was the case here.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 92512 is for nasal function studies, such as rhinomanometry, which does not apply to a general otolaryngologic examination.
Code 21310 is for the treatment of a nasal fracture (closed treatment), which would only be appropriate if the otolaryngologist had performed a fracture reduction or repair. Since only an examination was performed,
21310 is not appropriate.
Code 92502-51 (option B) is incorrect because the -51 modifier (multiple procedures) is unnecessary; only a single examination was performed.
3. ICD-10-CM Code:
Since only the examination was performed and not treatment, the ICD-10-CM code for nasal fracture (likely S02.2XXA for unspecified fracture of the nasal bones, initial encounter) would be reported separately by the facility or based on final documentation.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC guidelines support the use of 92502 for general ENT examinations performed under anesthesia, especially in cases of trauma evaluation without surgical intervention.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 92502.

NEW QUESTION # 91
A patient has squamous cell carcinoma lesions destroyed with cryosurgery:
0.6 cm right dorsal foot
2.0 cm left dorsal foot
What CPT coding is reported?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is destruction of malignant lesions (SCC).
17261 = Malignant lesion destruction, trunk/arms/legs, 0.6-1.0 cm
17262 = Same location, 1.1-2.0 cm
Feet are included in trunk/arms/legs.
Therefore, 17262, 17261 is correct.

NEW QUESTION # 92
A patient presents to the ER from a nursing home after the patient was found to have foul smelling, large sacral pressure ulcer during daily nursing rounds. The ER provider swabbed the wound for culture (which measured at 7cm in largest diameter); then cleaned the site before painting with povidone around the entire sacrum to reduce cutaneous bacterial load. The provider made an elliptical excision with 3mm margins around the outer edge of the ulcer and removed the lesion in its entirety. Further examination revealed deep tissue damage, prompting muscle and segmental bone removal. The wound was then closed using a layered skin flap closure.
What CPT coding and ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this scenario, the procedure involved the excision of a large sacral pressure ulcer with deep tissue damage that required muscle and bone removal and was followed by a layered flap closure. The coding reflects both the extent of the ulcer and the procedure performed:
1. CPT Code 15937: This code describes excision of a pressure ulcer with muscle and bone removal followed by flap closure, which matches the detailed procedure performed on the sacral ulcer.
2. ICD-10-CM Code L89.156: This code is used for a stage 4 sacral pressure ulcer, indicating the presence of deep tissue damage down to muscle and possibly bone, which aligns with the clinical findings.
Explanation of other options:
A . 15933, L89.153 and B. 15931, L89.153: These codes do not adequately describe the excision with muscle and bone removal nor the stage 4 severity of the ulcer.
C . 15935, L89.156: Although L89.156 is correct for a stage 4 ulcer, 15935 does not account for both muscle and bone excision with flap closure.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 15937, L89.156, accurately capturing the procedure performed and the severity of the ulcer.

NEW QUESTION # 93
A 67-year-old male presents with DJD and spondylolisthesis at L4-L5 The patient is placed prone on the operating table and, after induction of general anesthesia, the lower back is sterilely prepped and draped. One incision was made over L1-L5. This was confirmed with a probe under fluoroscopy. Laminectomies are done at vertebral segments L4 and L5 with facetectomies to relieve pressure to the nerve roots. Allograft was packed in the gutters from L1-L5 for a posterior arthrodesis. Pedicle screws were placed at L2, L3, and L4. The construct was copiously irrigated and muscle; fascia and skin were closed in layers.
Select the procedure codes for this scenario.
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 94
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