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Title: Latest MCCQE Test Answers | Most MCCQE Reliable Questions [Print This Page]
Author: gregsha409    Time: 1/29/2026 09:04
Title: Latest MCCQE Test Answers | Most MCCQE Reliable Questions
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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q10-Q15):NEW QUESTION # 10
A 70-year-old woman had a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy 2 days ago.
On examination today, her vital signs are as follows: She has been immobile since her operation. She is fatigued but is tolerating a full diet. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's fever?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Postoperative fever on day 1-2 is commonly caused by atelectasis, particularly in patients who are immobile.
It is considered a self-limited cause of early fever after surgery and often resolves with mobilization and pulmonary exercises.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Surgery, Postoperative Complications:
"The '5 W's' of postoperative fever: Wind (atelectasis), Water (UTI), Wound (infection), Walking (DVT), and Wonder drugs. Atelectasis typically occurs in the first 48 hours and is due to hypoventilation or pain- limited breathing." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Postoperative Management:
"Candidates must recognize timing-specific causes of postoperative fever. Atelectasis is the most likely cause within the first 48 hours." PE (B) can cause fever but is less likely without respiratory compromise. Wound infection (C) and bowel trauma (D) typically present later or with more specific symptoms. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis (A) usually presents later and with more systemic signs.

NEW QUESTION # 11
A 48-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of regular, heavy menstrual flow. She has a BMI of 54, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, and obstructive sleep apnea. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin: 82 g/L (123-157)
Ferritin: 6 µg/L (11-307)
Endometrial biopsy: Absence of hyperplasia or malignancy
Transvaginal ultrasound:
* Uterus: 12 cm ¡Á 8.2 cm ¡Á 6 cm
* Intramural fibroids
* Endometrial thickness: 14 mm
* Ovaries: Normal
Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is the first-line treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding, particularly in women with risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia and contraindications to systemic hormones (e.g., morbid obesity, diabetes, OSA).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Abnormal Uterine Bleeding" Section:
"The LNG-IUS is highly effective in reducing menstrual bleeding and improving hemoglobin levels. It is particularly recommended in women with obesity, chronic anovulation, or contraindications to estrogen." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):
"Candidates must consider the LNG-IUS as a preferred non-surgical treatment for chronic heavy menstrual bleeding when endometrial pathology has been excluded." Oral contraceptives (C) are not first-line in morbid obesity due to increased thromboembolic risk. Cyclic medroxyprogesterone (D) is less effective than LNG-IUS. Hysterectomy (A) is definitive but should follow failure of conservative therapy.

NEW QUESTION # 12
A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic accompanied by his 70-year-old husband. The patient reports that, over the last several months, his libido has been very low. Which one of the following would be the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Decreased libido in elderly patients can be multifactorial, but depression is a common and important cause that must be ruled out before hormone therapy or other steps. A proper mental health screen should precede further interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry / Geriatrics:
"In elderly men, reduced libido may be linked to depression, medical illness, or medications. Depression screening is essential." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Mood Disorders / Sexual Health):
"Candidates must consider depression as a common cause of decreased libido and assess accordingly before initiating hormone therapy." Testosterone testing (D) may follow. Prescribing (C) is premature. Couples counselling (B) may help if interpersonal issues are identified. Interviewing together (A) may inhibit disclosure.
-

NEW QUESTION # 13
You are called to attend an 18-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0, who is in precipitous labour. She did not realize she was pregnant and has not had any prenatal care. After the delivery, you examine the newborn boy; he is vigorous, and it appears that he was born at full term. Physical examination findings of the newborn are normal. Review of the prenatal record from the mother's last pregnancy shows the following:
* HIV: Negative
* Hepatitis B surface antibody: Positive
* Hepatitis C: Negative
* Syphilis serology: Negative
The mother's previous child was placed in foster care. The mother is withdrawn and uncommunicative after delivery. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Given the lack of prenatal care, the mother's withdrawal, and prior involvement of child protection services, a newborn drug screen is warranted to assess for possible in utero exposure. This is part of the safety assessment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Newborn Assessment:
"Infants born to mothers with no prenatal care or prior social concerns should undergo a full newborn screening, including toxicology if indicated." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Newborn Care and Social Issues:
"Candidates must identify social risk factors and initiate appropriate newborn evaluations, including toxicology screens when substance use is suspected." The mother was previously immune to hepatitis B, so (A) is not immediately required. Skin-to-skin care (D) is beneficial but secondary to screening in this context. Donor milk (B) is not indicated unless breastfeeding is contraindicated.

NEW QUESTION # 14
A 3-week-old boy is brought by his parents to your clinic for a well-child visit. The newborn was born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy. He is exclusively breastfed and is thriving. Physical examination findings are normal except for jaundice. Total bilirubin is 172 #mol/L (#100), and conjugated bilirubin is 4 #mol/L (#5). Results of a complete blood count and reticulocyte count are within the normal range. The results of a direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test were negative. Which one of the following, if any, is the most appropriate investigation?
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 15
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