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To protect your organization from employee fraud, which of the following controls should be employed?
A. Hire only temporary employees and rotate them out every six to eight months
B. Require that all potential employees sign an NDA prior to hire
C. Ensure all staff members have accounting degrees from accredited universities
D. Conduct detailed background checks on all new AP employees
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes preventing employee fraud through robust controls, particularly in AP, where access to payments and vendor data creates risks.Conducting detailed background checkson new AP employees is a standard control to verify integrity and reduce the risk of fraudulent behavior. Other options, such as NDAs, accounting degrees, or temporary hiring, are less effective or irrelevant for fraud prevention.
* Option A (Require that all potential employees sign an NDA prior to hire): Non-disclosure agreements (NDAs) protect confidential information but do not directly prevent fraud, which involves financial misconduct (e.g., embezzlement). This is not a primary fraud control.
* Option B (Ensure all staff members have accounting degrees): An accounting degree does not guarantee honesty or prevent fraud. Many AP roles require practical skills, not formal degrees. This is not a fraud control.
* Option C (Hire only temporary employees and rotate them out): Temporary staffing and frequent rotation disrupt continuity and may increase fraud risk due to lack of accountability. This is not a fraud control.
* Option D (Conduct detailed background checks on all new AP employees): Background checks verify criminal history, credit issues, and past employment, identifying potential fraud risks. This is a standard and effective control. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, "To prevent employee fraud, organizations should implement controls like detailed background checks for AP staff to ensure trustworthiness." It lists background checks as a key measure, alongside segregation of duties and surprise audits, but does not mention NDAs, degrees, or temporary staffing as fraud prevention controls. The training video reinforces this, citing background checks as essential for roles with financial access.
NEW QUESTION # 16
What is the current thinking regarding automation of T&E expense handling, reporting, and reimbursement?
A. T&E automation solutions are still too new to evaluate accurately
B. It opens too many loopholes for unauthorized expenses to sneak through
C. It reduces processing costs, thereby increasing efficiency in handling T&E data
D. While automation can be helpful, T&E processing still requires a lot of manual work
Answer: C
Explanation:
The current thinking on automation of Travel and Entertainment (T&E) expense handling, reporting, and reimbursement is that itreduces processing costs, thereby increasing efficiency in handling T&E data.
Automation streamlines tasks like receipt capture, expense report submission,approval workflows, and reimbursement, reducing manual effort and errors while improving compliance and visibility.
The web source from SAP Concur states: "T&E automation significantly reduces processing costs by streamlining expense reporting, improving accuracy, and increasing efficiency in handling T&E data." This directly supports Option D. The other options are incorrect:
* Option A: Automation minimizes, not perpetuates, manual work in modern T&E systems.
* Option B: Automation strengthens controls, reducing loopholes through features like policy checks.
* Option C: T&E automation is well-established, not too new to evaluate.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers "Travel and Entertainment (T&E)," emphasizing the benefits of automation in expense management. The curriculum's focus on "peer-tested best practices" aligns with the efficiency and cost-saving benefits of T&E automation.
References:
IOFM Accounts Payable Specialist (APS) Certification Program, covering Travel and Entertainment (T&E) SAP Concur: "T&E automation significantly reduces processing costs by streamlining expense reporting"
NEW QUESTION # 17
A copy of front and back of the original check, which is legally the same as the original check, is termed a substitute check or:
A. An image replacement document
B. A surrogate financial instrument
C. A negotiated bank draft
D. An electronic conversion order
Answer: A
Explanation:
A substitute check, created under the Check Clearing for the 21st Century Act (Check 21), is a paper reproduction of the front and back of an original check, legally equivalent to the original for processing purposes. It is also known as animage replacement document (IRD), as it replaces the original check with a digital image-based substitute. This facilitates faster check clearing through electronic processing.
The web source from NetSuite states: "A substitute check, also known as an image replacement document (IRD), is a paper copy of the front and back of a check, legally equivalent to the original, created under Check
21." This directly supports Option D. The other options are incorrect:
* Electronic conversion order (A)is not a recognized term.
* Surrogate financial instrument (B)is not a standard term for substitute checks.
* Negotiated bank draft (C)refers to a different financial instrument.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers "Payments," including check processing and Check 21 regulations. The curriculum's focus on "peer-tested best practices" aligns with the definition of a substitute check as an image replacement document.
References:
IOFM Accounts Payable Specialist (APS) Certification Program, covering Payments NetSuite: "A substitute check, also known as an image replacement document (IRD), is a paper copy of the front and back of a check"
NEW QUESTION # 18
Good vendor master file practices include each of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Having a vendor verification program
B. Blocking inactive vendors after a certain period
C. Deleting and re-entering vendors that move
D. Finding and consolidating duplicate vendors
Answer: C
Explanation:
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program outlines best practices for maintaining an accurate and efficient VMF. These include verifying vendor data, blocking inactive vendors, and consolidating duplicates to prevent errors and fraud.Deleting and re-entering vendors that moveis not a good practice, as it disrupts historical data and audit trails; instead, the VMF should be updated with the new address.
* Option A (Having a vendor verification program): A good practice, ensuring vendors are legitimate through TIN matches, address verification, and sanction list checks.
* Option B (Blocking inactive vendors after a certain period): A good practice, preventing accidental payments to dormant vendors while retaining their data for records.
* Option C (Finding and consolidating duplicate vendors): A good practice, reducing errors like duplicate payments by merging redundant vendor records.
* Option D (Deleting and re-entering vendors that move): Not a good practice. Deleting and re- entering disrupts transaction history; updating the address is the correct approach. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, "Best practices include vendor verification, blocking inactive vendors, and consolidating duplicates,but deleting and re- entering vendors for address changes is inefficient and risks data loss." The training video emphasizes,
"Update vendor addresses in the VMF rather than deleting records to maintain audit trails."
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following describes the possible consequences for anyone engaging in misconduct relating to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
A. Corporate dissolution
B. Community service
C. Industry blacklisting
D. Criminal penalties
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), enacted in 2002 to enhance corporate governance and financial reporting accuracy. SOX imposes strict requirements on public companies and holds individuals (e.g., executives, accountants) accountable for misconduct, such as falsifying financial records or obstructing audits. Violations can result incriminal penalties, including fines and imprisonment, depending on the severity of the misconduct.
* Option A (Corporate dissolution): While SOX violations can lead to significant financial and reputational damage, corporate dissolution (complete closure of the company) is not a direct legal consequence specified in the Act. This option is incorrect.
* Option B (Criminal penalties): SOX includes provisions for criminal penalties, such as fines up to $5 million and imprisonment up to 20 years for willful violations (e.g., falsifying records under Section
802). This is the correct answer.
* Option C (Industry blacklisting): There is no formal "industry blacklisting" mechanism in SOX.
While individuals may face reputational damage or debarment from certain roles, this is not a legal consequence. This option is incorrect.
* Option D (Community service): SOX does not prescribe community service as a penalty for misconduct. Penalties are financial or custodial (fines, imprisonment). This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Complianceexplains that "the Sarbanes-Oxley Act imposes criminal penalties, including fines and imprisonment, for misconduct such as falsifying financial records or obstructing audits." Thetraining video discusses SOX's impact on AP, noting that internal controls must prevent fraudulent reporting to avoid penalties under sections like 906 (certification of financial reports) and 802 (document tampering).
NEW QUESTION # 20
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