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Title: Salesforce Integration-Architect Practice Test - The Key To Fast Exam [Print This Page]

Author: troyree912    Time: yesterday 15:55
Title: Salesforce Integration-Architect Practice Test - The Key To Fast Exam
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Salesforce Integration-Architect Certification Exam is intended to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in designing and implementing complex integrations using Salesforce technology. Integration-Architect exam covers a wide range of topics, including data modeling, data integration, security, performance, and scalability. Integration-Architect exam consists of multiple-choice questions and is timed at 120 minutes.
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Salesforce Certified Integration Architect Sample Questions (Q64-Q69):NEW QUESTION # 64
A US business-to-consumer (B2C) company is planning to expand to Latin America. They project an initial Latin American customer base of about one million, and a growth rate of around 10% every year for the next 5 years. They anticipate privacy and data protection requirements similar to those in the European Union to come into effect during this time. Their initial analysis indicates that key personal data is stored in the following systems:
1. Legacy mainframe systems that have remained untouched for years and are due to be decommissioned.
2. Salesforce Commerce Cloud Service Cloud, Marketing Cloud, and Community Cloud.
3. The company's CIO tasked the integration architect with ensuring that they can completely delete their Latin American customer's personal data on demand.
Which three requirements should the integration architect consider?
Choose 3 answers
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
The integration architect should consider the impact of deleted records on system functionality, the ability to delete personal data in every system, and the ability to provide a 360-degree view of the customer. These are important requirements for ensuring that the company can comply with the privacy and data protection regulations, as well as deliver a customer-centric service. Option A is not correct because manual steps and procedures are not desirable for deleting personal data on demand. The integration architect should aim for an automated and reliable solution that minimizes human intervention and errors. Option D is not correct because restoring deleted records when needed may violate the privacy and data protection regulations, as well as the customer's consent. The integration architect should ensure that the deletion of personal data is permanent and irreversible.

NEW QUESTION # 65
Universal Containers (UC) currently owns a middleware tool and they have developed an API-led integration architecture with three API tiers. The first tier interfaces directly with the systems of engagement, the second tier implements business logic and aggregates data, while the third tier interfaces directly with systems of record. Some of the systems of engagement will be a mobile application, a web application, and Salesforce.
UC has a business requirement to return data to the systems of engagement in different formats while also enforcing different security protocols.
What should an Integration Architect recommend to meet these requirements?
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 66
A customer is evaluating the Platform Events solution and would like help in comparing/contrasting it with Outbound Messaging for real-time/near-real time needs. They expect 3,000 customers to view messages in Salesforce. What should be evaluated and highlighted when deciding between the solutions?12
Answer: C
Explanation:
When comparing Platform Events and Outbound Messaging for a near-real-time architecture, a Salesforce Platform Integration Architect must evaluate fundamental differences in their delivery models and governance. While both provide declarative, asynchronous "Fire-and-Forget" capabilities, their technical constraints differ significantly, particularly regarding scalability and platform limits.
The key architectural highlight in this scenario is that Platform Events operate on a specialized event bus with specific Event Publishing and Event Delivery limits. Unlike Outbound Messaging, which is governed by more general daily outbound call limits (often tied to user licenses), Platform Events have a dedicated allocation for the number of events that can be published per hour and delivered in a 24-hour period to external clients via the Pub/Sub API or CometD. For example, the number of concurrent subscribers to a Platform Event channel is typically capped at 2,000 for standard configurations. Since the customer expects
3,000 customers to view these messages, this limit is a critical evaluation point; the architecture would need to account for this gap, perhaps by using middleware to fan out messages to the larger audience.
In contrast, Outbound Messaging does not have an "Event Delivery" limit in the same sense. It is a point-to- point SOAP-based push mechanism where Salesforce manages retries for up to 24 hours if the receiving endpoint is unavailable. However, it is less flexible for multi-consumer scenarios because it requires a separate configuration for every unique destination.
Regarding the other options: Option A is incorrect because neither system strictly guarantees "exactly-once" delivery without the possibility of duplicates; in fact, Outbound Messaging may deliver a message more than once if it doesn't receive a timely acknowledgment. Option B is incorrect because Platform Events do not have built-in "fault recovery" handled by Salesforce in the same way as Outbound Messaging's automatic retry queue; with Platform Events, it is the subscriber's responsibility to use a Replay ID to retrieve missed events within the 72-hour retention window. Therefore, highlighting the unique delivery and publishing limits is the most vital step for the architect.

NEW QUESTION # 67
A company in a heavily regulated industry requires data in legacy systems to be displayed in Salesforce user interfaces (UIs). They are proficient in their cloud-based ETL (extract, transform, load) tools. They expose APIs built on their on-premise middleware to cloud and on-premise applications.
Which two findings about their current state will allow copies of legacy data in Salesforce?
Choose 2 answers
Answer: A,B

NEW QUESTION # 68
Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) has recently changed its Corporate Security Guidelines requiring all cloud applications to pass through a secure firewall before accessing on-premise resources. NTO is evaluating middleware solutions. Which consideration should an integration architect evaluate before choosing a middleware solution?
Answer: B
Explanation:
When corporate guidelines mandate a firewall-protected entry point for cloud traffic, the middleware architecture must include a component capable of residing in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) or perimeter network. The architect must evaluate the solution's API Gateway capabilities.
A secure API Gateway acts as the intermediary that terminates external (cloud) TLS connections and inspects incoming traffic before proxying it to internal systems. It allows the security team to implement:
* IP Whitelisting: Ensuring only Salesforce's IP ranges can access the gateway.
* Mutual Authentication: Using certificates to verify that the request is genuinely coming from the Salesforce org.
* Rate Limiting: Protecting on-premise resources from being overwhelmed by cloud requests.
Option A (OAuth) is an authorization framework and does not satisfy the network-level firewall requirement on its own. Option B (ODBC) is an internal database protocol that should generally never be exposed to a cloud-facing firewall due to security risks. By prioritizing a solution with a hardened API Gateway, the architect ensures that NTO meets its new security mandates while providing a scalable and secure bridge for Salesforce to access back-office services.

NEW QUESTION # 69
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