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A 23-year-old woman with borderline personality disorder is brought to the Emergency Department having ingested non-lethal substances after her boyfriend broke up with her. The staff tells you that she has consulted
8 times under similar circumstances in the past 3 years. Which one of the following pieces of information would be useful to provide to the staff?
A. Symptoms of borderline personality disorder will likely attenuate over time
B. She is overusing health care services
C. Suicidal thoughts must be an indication of major depressive disorder
D. She will never commit suicide
E. Not much can be done with personality disorders
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
While borderline personality disorder is challenging, symptoms (particularly impulsivity and suicidal behaviors) often attenuate with age and appropriate therapy (e.g., dialectical behavior therapy). Providing hope and clinical context to staff improves care and reduces stigma.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Personality Disorders":
"BPD is associated with emotional dysregulation and impulsivity. Long-term prognosis is better than once believed, with many patients showing symptom remission over time." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-4: Personality Disorders):
"Candidates must provide appropriate education to patients and staff regarding prognosis and treatment of BPD." Statements A-D are false, stigmatizing, or dangerous.
NEW QUESTION # 142
An 85-year-old man is transferred from an acute care hospital to your long-term care (LTC) facility. He has a fever, fatigue, myalgia, and malaise. His test result is positive for influenza A virus. Two other residents and 1 LTC staff member have experienced the same symptoms. Which one of the following is the best next step to prevent further infections at the LTC facility?
A. Order symptomatic LTC staff to stay home.
B. Enforce mandatory influenza vaccination for LTC staff.
C. Ensure that all visitors are immunized.
D. Ask all visitors to wear a mask.
Answer: A
Explanation:
During an outbreak in a long-term care facility, prompt control measures include keeping symptomatic staff at home to prevent spread. Staff are often vectors of infection, and exclusion is a key public health intervention.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Diseases, "Infection Control and Prevention":
"During influenza outbreaks in institutional settings, exclusion of symptomatic staff is critical to controlling spread." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 63-2: Outbreak Management):
"Candidates must understand outbreak control, including staff exclusion, cohorting, and surveillance in congregate settings." Vaccination (B) is preventive but not immediately effective during an outbreak. Masking and visitor vaccination are supportive but secondary measures.
NEW QUESTION # 143
A 43-year-old man comes to your office for the first time. He has not seen a doctor in over 5 years and has no known past medical history. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and the remainder of his examination is normal. As part of the initial visit, you order some screening blood work that reveals a fasting blood glucose of 6.3 mmol/L (3.3-5.8) and a hemoglobin A1c of 6.1% (4-6). Which one of the following is the best next step?
A. Order thyrotroph (thyroid-stimulating hormone) level.
B. Order a urine albumin:creatinine ratio.
C. Perform a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test.
D. Order an exercise stress test.
E. Test capillary blood glucose 4 times a day.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient's lab results suggest impaired fasting glucose and an elevated A1c just below the threshold for diabetes. The gold standard to confirm diabetes in such intermediate cases is the 75 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Diabetes Mellitus" Section:
"If A1c is in the 6.0-6.4% range or fasting glucose 6.1-6.9 mmol/L, a 75 g OGTT is recommended to establish the diagnosis of diabetes or confirm impaired glucose tolerance." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-4: Diabetes):
"Candidates must correctly apply diabetes screening and diagnostic criteria and follow up abnormal results with appropriate confirmatory testing." Urine ACR (C) is useful in diagnosed diabetes, not for initial screening. TSH (A), capillary glucose testing (B), and exercise testing (E) are not indicated at this stage.
NEW QUESTION # 144
A 62-year-old woman is taken to the operating room for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Induction of anesthesia triggers a severe hypertensive crisis that ultimately resolves after administration of a 5 mg bolus of phentolamine.
Which one of the following is most consistent with this presentation?
A. High plasma cortisol
B. Low renal vein renin
C. Low urinary metanephrines
D. Increased thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone) level
E. Elevated plasma catecholamines
Answer: E
Explanation:
This presentation is classic for an undiagnosed pheochromocytoma, which causes episodic or crisis-level hypertension due to excess catecholamines. Anesthesia or surgical manipulation can trigger massive catecholamine release, leading to hypertensive crisis. Phentolamine, an alpha-blocker, is the appropriate treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Pheochromocytoma:
"Pheochromocytomas may precipitate hypertensive crises during surgery. Elevated plasma catecholamines and urinary metanephrines confirm diagnosis." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:
"Candidates should suspect pheochromocytoma in perioperative hypertensive crises and confirm with plasma or urine catecholamines/metanephrines." Low metanephrines (E) would argue against pheochromocytoma. TSH (A), cortisol (D), and renin (C) are unrelated to acute intraoperative hypertensive episodes of this nature.
NEW QUESTION # 145
A 17-year-old boy presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of recurrent headaches. The headaches are excruciating, and he describes them as a stabbing pain, usually around his right eye. They occur several times daily for 2 to 3 weeks and recur every few months. The headaches are associated with tearing from his right eye and tend to get worse when he is overtired. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Post-concussive headache
B. Brain tumour
C. Migraine
D. Cluster headache
E. Sinusitis
Answer: D
Explanation:
The classic description of brief, severe unilateral periorbital pain with autonomic symptoms (tearing), occurring in clusters (same time daily for weeks), is diagnostic of cluster headache.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology, "Headaches":
"Cluster headaches: severe unilateral periorbital pain, often with lacrimation, nasal congestion, occurring in clusters over weeks. More common in young males." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 35-2: Headache Disorders):
"Candidates must distinguish among headache types based on duration, pattern, and associated symptoms." Migraine tends to last hours and has nausea or photophobia. Sinusitis causes dull, pressure-like pain. Tumour- related headache is progressive and worse with Valsalva. Post-concussive headache would have trauma history.
NEW QUESTION # 146
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