Title: 100% Pass Efficient Managing-Cloud-Security - Hot WGU Managing Cloud Security (J [Print This Page] Author: mattbro530 Time: yesterday 20:56 Title: 100% Pass Efficient Managing-Cloud-Security - Hot WGU Managing Cloud Security (J So you rest assured that with the WGU Managing-Cloud-Security actual questions you will not only ace the WGU Managing-Cloud-Security exam predation but also boost confidence to perform well in the final WGU Managing-Cloud-Security test. With the WGU Managing-Cloud-Security pdf questions you can experience the type and pattern of the final Managing-Cloud-Security exam. In this way, you will be confident on the day of the WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02) Managing-Cloud-Security Exam and solve all the WGU Managing-Cloud-Security exam questions. The WGU wants to make the Managing-Cloud-Security exam preparation simple and quick. To achieve this objective the WGU is offering the top-notch and top-rated Managing-Cloud-Security practice test questions in three user-friendly and compatible formats.
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Which regulation defines requirements for the electronic transfer of healthcare data to a cloud service provider?
A. Stark Law
B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
C. Healthcare Quality Improvement Law
D. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) defines requirements for the electronic transfer of healthcare data to a cloud service provider. Managing Cloud documentation explains that HIPAA governs the protection, transmission, and storage of protected health information (PHI).
HIPAA establishes administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of healthcare data. When healthcare organizations use cloud services, both the organization and the cloud provider must ensure compliance with HIPAA requirements.
The other regulations do not apply to healthcare data transfer. Stark Law addresses physician self-referral, the Healthcare Quality Improvement Law focuses on peer review, and GLBA applies to financial institutions.
Therefore, HIPAA is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 30
An organization is considering using vendor-specific application programming interfaces (APIs) and internal tools to set up a new service. However, the engineers are against this plan and are advocating for a new policy to prevent issues that could arise. Which common concern in cloud applications are the engineers concerned about?
A. Portability
B. Reliability
C. Availability
D. Scalability
Answer: A
Explanation:
The engineers are concerned aboutportability. Vendor-specific APIs and tools create a dependency on a single provider, leading to vendor lock-in. This limits the ability to migrate services or workloads to another provider without significant rework.
Reliability and availability refer to service uptime and continuity, while scalability addresses performance under demand. Although important, none of these directly relate to cross-platform flexibility. Portability ensures that services, data, and applications can be easily moved or integrated across environments.
By adopting portable solutions-such as open standards, containerization, and multi-cloud strategies- organizations reduce long-term risks, increase negotiation power with providers, and enhance resilience.
NEW QUESTION # 31
A cloud consumer is scheduling a vulnerability assessment of a cloud service procured through a cloud broker. Who should the cloud consumer notify before beginning the assessment?
A. The cloud consumer's customers
B. The cloud broker
C. The cloud consumer's legal department
D. The cloud service provider
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before performing a vulnerability assessment on a cloud service, the cloud service provider (CSP) must be notified. Managing Cloud principles explain that CSPs own and operate the underlying infrastructure and define acceptable use and security testing conditions through their terms of service.
Notifying the CSP ensures that testing activities are authorized and do not violate contractual agreements or trigger security alerts. Unauthorized testing could be mistaken for malicious activity and lead to service disruption or legal consequences. CSP notification also allows coordination to minimize operational impact.
Although the service was procured through a broker, the CSP ultimately controls the environment being tested. Therefore, the cloud service provider is the correct entity to notify.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which security control could be implemented as part of a layered physical defense at a cloud hosting site?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Access control enforcement
C. Video surveillance capability
D. Background checks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Video surveillance capability is a key security control used as part of a layered physical defense at a cloud hosting site. Managing Cloud principles explain that physical security relies on multiple overlapping controls to deter, detect, and respond to unauthorized physical access.
Video surveillance provides continuous monitoring of data center facilities, including entrances, exits, server rooms, and perimeter boundaries. It acts as both a deterrent and a detection mechanism, enabling real-time observation and post-incident investigation. Surveillance footage supports incident response, forensic analysis, and compliance requirements.
Access control enforcement and multifactor authentication are primarily logical or administrative controls, while background checks are personnel security measures. Although important, they are not physical perimeter controls. Therefore, video surveillance capability is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 33
An organization is undergoing an ISO 27001 audit that includes a software as a service (SaaS) solution within scope, and the auditor has requested evidence of controls. What evidence should the organization provide the auditor?
A. Network firewall rules
B. Operating system patch logs
C. Physical diagram of the data center
D. Provider compliance attestation
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a SaaS solution is included within the scope of an ISO 27001 audit, the organization should provide the cloud provider's compliance attestation as evidence of controls. Managing Cloud guidance explains that in the SaaS model, the provider manages infrastructure, platform, and application-level controls.
Because customers do not manage operating systems, firewalls, or physical data centers in SaaS, they cannot supply direct technical evidence for those controls. Instead, third-party audit reports and attestations demonstrate that the provider has implemented appropriate security controls.
Firewall rules, OS patch logs, and physical diagrams are not accessible to SaaS customers. Therefore, provider compliance attestation is the correct evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 34
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