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The PDFBraindumps EMT PDF file contains the real, valid, and updated NREMT EMT exam practice questions. These are the real EMT exam questions that surely will appear in the upcoming exam and by preparing with them you can easily pass the final exam. The EMT PDF Questions file is easy to use and install. You can use the EMT PDF practice questions on your laptop, desktop, tabs, or even on your smartphone and start EMT exam preparation right now. Following is the Test Prep EMT Exam FormatFormat: Multiple choices, multiple answers
Number of Questions: 70-120
Language: English
Passing score: 70%
Length of Examination: 120 minutes
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Free PDF EMT - Emergency Medical Technicians Exam ¨CProfessional Practice Exams FreeOur PDFBraindumps team always provide the best quality service in the perspective of customers. There are many reasons why we are be trusted: 24-hour online customer service, the free experienced demo for EMT exam materials, diversity versions, one-year free update service after purchase, and the guarantee of no help full refund. If you can successfully pass the EMT Exam with the help of our PDFBraindumps, we hope you can remember our common efforts. NREMT Emergency Medical Technicians Exam Sample Questions (Q31-Q36):NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following are nerve agents? Select the two answer options that are correct.
A. Sarin
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Tabun
E. Metoprolol
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
Nerve agents are highly toxic organophosphate chemicals that inhibit acetylcholinesterase, leading to excess acetylcholine accumulation and life-threatening cholinergic effects. NREMT hazardous materials education highlights recognition of these agents due to their rapid lethality.
Option C (Tabun) and D (Sarin) are correct. Both are internationally recognized nerve agents historically used in chemical warfare and terrorist attacks.
Option A (Naloxone) is an opioid antagonist, not a nerve agent.
Option B (Metoprolol) is a beta-blocker medication.
Option E (Atropine) is not a nerve agent; it is an antidote used to treat nerve agent poisoning.
NREMT emphasizes scene safety, recognition of toxidromes, and early antidote administration for nerve agent exposure.
NEW QUESTION # 32
A 9-year-old patient who was injured in an MCI is brought to the treatment area with a delayed triage tag. Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT expect to find? Select the three correct options.
A. Ability to ambulate
B. Mottled skin
C. Breathing only after opening the airway
D. Follows simple commands
E. Respiratory rate of 16
F. Palpable pulses being present
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In pediatric START orJumpSTARTtriage, a "delayed" status is appropriate if the child is breathing adequately, has palpable pulses, and follows commands. The respiratory rate of 16 is normal for a 9-year-old, and being able to walk also supports the "delayed" tag.
"Mottled skin" and "breathing only after airway opening" would more likely lead to "immediate" or even
"expectant" categories depending on associated symptoms.
References:
JumpSTART Pediatric MCI Triage Algorithm
National EMS Education Standards - Triage
PALS Provider Manual (American Heart Association)
NEW QUESTION # 33
A patient is having a stroke. Which of the following details are most important to report to the receiving hospital? Select the two answer options that are correct.
A. Weight of the patient
B. Time of first signs or symptoms
C. History of autoimmune disorder
D. Patient's family physician
E. Patient's denial of a headache
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
NREMT stroke management focuses on rapid identification and time-sensitive intervention, particularly for patients who may be eligible for thrombolytic therapy or endovascular treatment.
Option D (Time of first signs or symptoms) is critical. This determines the patient's eligibility for treatments such as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which must be administered within a defined time window.
Option C (Patient's denial of a headache) is also important because sudden, severe headache suggests hemorrhagic stroke, whereas its absence may support ischemic stroke. This information helps guide diagnostic urgency and treatment planning.
Option A is not immediately relevant prehospital.
Option B is administrative, not emergent.
Option E does not impact acute stroke management.
NREMT stresses the importance of early notification, accurate time history, and focused neurological reporting to improve stroke outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A patient with emphysema is displaying pursed lip breathing. Which of the following pathological responses is responsible for this type of breathing?
A. Decreased hemoglobin
B. Inadequate diaphragmatic function
C. Increased mucous production
D. Loss of lung elasticity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Pursed-lip breathing is a classic compensatory mechanism seen in patients with emphysema, a form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). According to NREMT education, emphysema is characterized by destruction of the alveolar walls, which leads to loss of lung elasticity. This loss prevents the small airways from remaining open during exhalation.
Option A is correct because pursed-lip breathing creates positive pressure in the airways during exhalation.
This pressure helps keep collapsed airways open longer, allowing trapped air to escape and improving ventilation. It also reduces the work of breathing and helps alleviate dyspnea.
Option B is incorrect because decreased hemoglobin affects oxygen-carrying capacity, not airway mechanics or breathing patterns.
Option C is more commonly associated with chronic bronchitis, not emphysema.
Option D is incorrect because diaphragmatic dysfunction is not the primary cause of pursed-lip breathing.
NREMT emphasizes recognizing compensatory breathing patterns in chronic lung disease to guide supportive care, including oxygen administration and positioning.
NEW QUESTION # 35
What patient conditions have an indication for the use of a CPAP device? Select the three answer options that are correct.
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pulmonary edema from burns
E. Acute myocardial infarction
F. Acute bronchospasms
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) is used in patients with moderate to severe respiratory distress who are conscious and able to maintain their airway. NREMT guidelines identify specific respiratory conditions where CPAP improves oxygenation and ventilation.
Option A (Chronic bronchitis) is correct because CPAP helps overcome airway collapse and improves gas exchange in COPD patients.
Option B (Pulmonary edema) is correct because CPAP reduces preload and afterload while forcing fluid out of alveoli, improving oxygenation.
Option C (Acute bronchospasms) is correct because CPAP helps splint open airways and reduce work of breathing.
Option D is incorrect because CPAP is not used for isolated myocardial infarction without respiratory failure.
Option E is contraindicated because positive pressure can worsen a pneumothorax.
Option F is contraindicated due to airway burns and potential inhalation injury.
NREMT stresses proper patient selection to prevent CPAP-related complications.
NEW QUESTION # 36
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