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CompTIA CAS-004, also known as the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) certification exam, is a top-level certification for experienced security professionals. It is designed to validate the skills and knowledge required to conceptualize, design, and implement secure solutions across complex enterprise environments. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification covers a wide range of advanced security topics and is ideal for those who want to prove their expertise in the field of cybersecurity.
To be eligible to take the CompTIA CAS-004 Exam, candidates must possess a minimum of ten years of experience in IT administration, including at least five years of hands-on experience in technical security roles. Alternatively, candidates can also have a combination of a four-year degree in a relevant field and at least five years of experience in IT security. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification is also intended for professionals who hold other security certifications, such as the Security+, CISSP, or CISA, and are looking to expand their knowledge of advanced security concepts.
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The CASP+ certification exam covers a range of topics, including risk management, enterprise security architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of computing and business disciplines. CAS-004 Exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in these areas and to ensure that they have the expertise required to secure enterprise-level systems against advanced threats. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification exam is also designed to be practical and relevant to the day-to-day work of cybersecurity professionals, with a focus on real-world scenarios and hands-on experience. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Sample Questions (Q488-Q493):NEW QUESTION # 488
A security engineer at a company is designing a system to mitigate recent setbacks caused competitors that are beating the company to market with the new products. Several of the products incorporate propriety enhancements developed by the engineer's company. The network already includes a SEIM and a NIPS and requires 2FA for all user access. Which of the following system should the engineer consider NEXT to mitigate the associated risks?
A. Mail gateway
B. DLP
C. UTM
D. Data flow enforcement
Answer: B
Explanation:
A DLP system is the best option for the company to mitigate the risk of losing its proprietary enhancements to competitors. DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block data transfers based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, source, destination, etc. DLP can help protect the company's intellectual property and trade secrets from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks.
NEW QUESTION # 489
A product development team has submitted code snippets for review prior to release.
INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the code snippets, and then select one vulnerability, and one fix for each code snippet.
Code Snippet 1
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 1:
SQL injection
Cross-site request forgery
Server-side request forgery
Indirect object reference
Cross-site scripting
Fix 1:
Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Perform output encoding of queryResponse,
Ensure usex:ia belongs to logged-in user.
Inspect URLS and disallow arbitrary requests.
Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Vulnerability 2
1) Denial of service
2) Command injection
3) SQL injection
4) Authorization bypass
5) Credentials passed via GET
Fix 2
A) Implement prepared statements and bind
variables.
B) Remove the serve_forever instruction.
C) Prevent the "authenticated" value from being overridden by a GET parameter.
D) HTTP POST should be used for sensitive parameters.
E) Perform input sanitization of the userid field. Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in explanation.
Explanation:
Code Snippet 1
Vulnerability 1: SQL injection
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that interacts with a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input fields, such asusername or password, and execute them on the database server. This can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access.
Fix 1: Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Input sanitization is a technique that prevents SQL injection by validating and filtering the user input values before passing them to the database. The input sanitization should remove any special characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or dashes, that can alter the intended SQL query. Alternatively, the input sanitization can use a whitelist of allowed values and reject any other values.
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 2: Cross-site request forgery
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that handles web requests. An attacker can trick a user into sending a malicious web request to a server that performs an action on behalf of the user, such as changing their password, transferring funds, or deleting data. This can result in unauthorized actions, data loss, or account compromise.
Fix 2: Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Anti-forgery tokens are techniques that prevent CSRF by adding a unique and secret value to each web request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before performing the action. The anti- forgery token should be different for each user and each session, and should not be predictable or reusable by an attacker. This way, only legitimate web requests from the user's browser can be accepted by the server.
NEW QUESTION # 490
An organization has deployed a cloud-based application that provides virtual event services globally to clients. During a typical event, thousands of users access various entry pages within a short period of time. The entry pages include sponsor-related content that is relatively static and is pulled from a database. When the first major event occurs, users report poor response time on the entry pages. Which of the following features is the most appropriate for the company to implement?
A. Horizontal scalability
B. Containerization
C. Caching
D. Vertical scalability
E. Static code analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Caching is the most appropriate solution to improve response time for static content, such as sponsor-related data on the entry pages. Caching stores frequently accessed data closer to users, reducing the need to retrieve it from the database repeatedly. This results in faster load times, especially during high-traffic events. While scalability (horizontal or vertical) might address overall system performance, caching specifically targets improving the speed of accessing static content.
NEW QUESTION # 491
A security analyst is researching containerization concepts for an organization. The analyst is concerned about potential resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources.
Which of the following core Linux concepts BEST reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers?
A. Union filesystem overlay
B. Device mapper
C. Linux namespaces
D. Cgroups
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cgroups (control groups) is a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, such as CPU, memory, disk I/O, or network bandwidth. Cgroups can help prevent resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources, as it can enforce quotas or priorities for each container or group of containers. Union filesystem overlay is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a technique that allows multiple filesystems to be mounted on the same mount point, creating a layered representation of files and directories. Linux namespaces is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a feature that isolates and virtualizes system resources for each process or group of processes, creating independent instances of global resources. Device mapper is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a framework that provides logical volume management, encryption, or snapshotting capabilities for block devices. Verified References: https://www.
comptia.org/blog/what-is-cgroups https://partners.comptia.org/doc ... urces/casp-content- guide
NEW QUESTION # 492
A security architect is analyzing an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business. Which of the following techniques should have been implemented to prevent these types of risks?
A. Supply chain visibility
B. Code reviews
C. Source code escrows
D. Software audits
Answer: C
Explanation:
A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms. A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:
Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify the application according to their needs.
Protect the vendor's intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.
Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.
