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Title: Free ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Learning Cram | ITIL-4-Practitioner-
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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:
TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.
Topic 2
  • Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.
Topic 3
  • Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q21-Q26):NEW QUESTION # 21
Which is a key input to the release planning and coordination process?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process in ITIL 4 Release Management requires inputs toensure effective planning and execution of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument specifies:"Key inputs to release planning and coordination include details about the users who will be affected, as this helps in scheduling and communicating the release to minimize disruption"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Documented findings on the success of a release) is an output of a release evaluation, not an input to planning.
* Option B (Updates to the continual improvement register) may inform long-term improvements but isn' t a direct input to planning a specific release.
* Option C (Details about the users who will be affected) is a critical input, as understanding the user base helps tailor the release schedule, communication, and impact mitigation strategies.
* Option D (Notifications to stakeholders about the release status) is an output of the release process, not an input to planning.
The correct answer is C, as user details are essential for effective release planning and coordination.

NEW QUESTION # 22
An organization manually checks that releases of new or changed products/services have been successfully completed. Which tools should be used to automate this process?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Automating the verification of release success involves tracking the performance and stability of the released services. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Monitoring and event management tools can automate the verification of release success by tracking system performance and detecting anomalies post-release, ensuring the release meets its objectives"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Monitoring and event management tools) is correct, as these tools can automatically check system health and performance after a release, replacing manual checks.
* Option B (Workflow management and collaboration tools) focuses on process coordination, not post- release verification.
* Option C (Enterprise architecture tools) is used for dependency mapping, not release verification.
* Option D (Analysis and reporting tools) provides retrospective insights but doesn't automate real-time verification.
The correct answer is A, as monitoring tools are best suited for automating release verification.

NEW QUESTION # 23
Which activity of the 'release model development and improvement' process is used to standardize the preparation of release instances?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The release model development and improvement process aims to create and refine standardizedmodels for releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains:"Release model review and development involves defining and standardizing the structure, contents, and schedule of releases to ensure consistency in the preparation of release instances"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (Release management approach review and development) focuses on the overall practice approach, not specifically the preparation of release instances.
* Option B (Release model review and development) directly addresses standardizing the preparation of release instances by defining repeatable models.
* Option C (Product architecture and service relationship analysis) is a supporting activity to understand dependencies, not to standardize release preparation.
* Option D (Release execution) is the process of deploying a release, not developing or standardizing models.
The correct answer is B, as it directly relates to standardizing release preparation through model development.

NEW QUESTION # 24
A new release manager wants to explain to the organization's service consumers the purpose of a new release management practice. What should the release manager say to the service consumers to help them realize the value of release management?
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 25
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management.
Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"(Section 5.3).
* Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn't directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
* Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
* Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
* Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 26
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