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[General] Pass Guaranteed 2026 Reliable Nursing Interactive AANP-FNP EBook

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【General】 Pass Guaranteed 2026 Reliable Nursing Interactive AANP-FNP EBook

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Nursing AANP Family Nurse Practitioner (AANP-FNP) Sample Questions (Q67-Q72):NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following diagnostic tests would not typically be done for a patient with primary hypertension in stage 1?
  • A. potassium
  • B. glucose tolerance
  • C. hematocrit
  • D. creatinine
Answer: B
Explanation:
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is commonly classified into various stages to guide treatment and management strategies. Stage 1 hypertension is defined by the American Heart Association as having a systolic blood pressure between 130-139 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure between 80-89 mm Hg. Individuals diagnosed with stage 1 hypertension are typically at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease compared to those with normal blood pressure but do not yet require the extensive diagnostic testing that might be necessary for more severe stages or complicated cases of hypertension.
When managing a patient with stage 1 hypertension, the focus is often on lifestyle modifications and, in some cases, initiating pharmacotherapy to control blood pressure. Common initial treatments include the administration of thiazide diuretics, which are effective for lowering blood pressure in many patients. The diagnostic tests recommended at this stage are usually aimed at establishing a baseline and checking for any organ damage or other conditions that might be contributing to the hypertension.
Typical tests for a stage 1 hypertension patient might include: - **Blood tests to check kidney function (creatinine, blood urea nitrogen)** - **Electrolytes (potassium, sodium) to monitor for imbalances** - **Complete blood count (hematocrit and others) to rule out anemia or signs of other systemic issues** However, a **glucose tolerance test**, which measures the body's ability to use glucose effectively and is used to diagnose diabetes mellitus, is not typically a standard part of the initial assessment for a patient with stage 1 hypertension unless there is a specific reason to suspect glucose metabolism issues (such as a history of diabetes or signs of metabolic syndrome). While patients with hypertension are at increased risk for diabetes, the decision to perform a glucose tolerance test would be based on additional clinical signs or risk factors rather than hypertension alone.
The rationale behind focusing on certain tests and not others is based on the most common and immediate risks associated with the specific stage of hypertension. As the management of hypertension is tailored to the severity and the individual patient's risk factors, not all tests are necessary or relevant for every patient. In the case of stage 1 hypertension, the priority is to control blood pressure and assess for any immediate complications that could be managed with early intervention, thus optimizing the patient's long-term health outcomes.

NEW QUESTION # 68
A 33-year-old Caucasian woman is in the clinic inquiring about sexual activity during pregnancy. She is 7 months pregnant and concerned that it will place her pregnancy at an increased risk. The nurse practitioner has determined there have been no risk factors to date, so the NP's knowledge suggests that:
  • A. This may stimulate labor and, therefore, should be avoided.
  • B. This may increase the risk of pre-term labor.
  • C. There is no increased risk to the pregnancy.
  • D. This may increase the risk of cardiovascular abnormalities in the fetus.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When discussing sexual activity during pregnancy, many pregnant women, like the 33-year-old Caucasian patient mentioned, often express concerns regarding the safety and impact of such activities on their pregnancy. It is crucial to address these concerns with accurate information and reassurance based on current medical understanding and the specific circumstances of the pregnancy.
In general, for a pregnancy that has been progressing without complications, there is no increased risk associated with engaging in sexual activity. The human body is designed to protect the developing fetus throughout the pregnancy, and normal sexual activity does not typically interfere with this process. The amniotic fluid, strong uterine muscles, and the mucus plug at the cervix all serve to protect the fetus from infection and physical harm.
However, it is essential for pregnant women to be aware of certain signs that should prompt them to avoid sexual activity and seek medical advice. These include symptoms like vaginal discharge that is unusual in color or smell, any form of vaginal bleeding, or the rupture of the membranes (commonly known as water breaking). These symptoms could indicate potential complications, and abstaining from sexual activity while these are evaluated and managed is prudent.
In a small percentage of pregnancies where complications are present, such as placenta previa, preterm labor, or a history of miscarriages, a healthcare provider might advise against sexual intercourse. This caution is due to the potential for physical stimulation of the lower uterine segment during intercourse, which could theoretically lead to contractions or increased pressure on the cervix.
Additionally, the hormonal changes triggered by orgasm, which include the release of oxytocin, can potentially stimulate uterine contractions. While in most pregnancies this is not a concern and does not lead to pre-term labor, in specific high-risk cases, this could be a factor contributing to early labor.
In conclusion, for most pregnancies that are progressing without any complications, sexual activity is considered safe and does not increase the risk to the pregnancy. Pregnant women should maintain open communication with their healthcare providers about their specific situations. This will help ensure that any potential risks are appropriately managed and that the pregnancy can continue safely while also accommodating the natural aspects of the patient's life, including sexual activity.

NEW QUESTION # 69
our patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. He has been taking carbidopa and levodopa orally for 10 days and is concerned that it is not helping to control his symptoms. What would be the appropriate response to his concern?
  • A. Ask the patient if he is adhering to the recommended diet.
  • B. Immediately notify his health care provider that the medication has not been effective.
  • C. Tell the patient that it takes 1 to 2 months before the medication is effective in controlling symptoms.
  • D. Make sure that the patient is taking the medication properly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Parkinson's disease is a chronic and progressive neurological disorder that primarily affects motor function due to the loss of dopamine-producing brain cells. The medications carbidopa and levodopa are commonly prescribed to manage the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Levodopa is a precursor of dopamine, which means it can be converted into dopamine in the brain, thus supplementing the decreased levels of this neurotransmitter. Carbidopa is combined with levodopa to prevent the early conversion of levodopa to dopamine outside the brain, which enhances its effectiveness and reduces side effects.
When a patient starts taking carbidopa and levodopa, it's essential to understand that the response to this treatment doesn't occur immediately. Initially, the body may need time to adjust to the medication, and the brain's remaining dopamine-producing cells may take time to respond to the increased availability of levodopa. This adjustment period can vary significantly among individuals. Typically, it can take anywhere from 1 to 2 months to observe notable improvements in the symptoms. In some cases, it might even require up to 6 months for the full effects of the medication to manifest.
Given that your patient has only been on carbidopa and levodopa for 10 days, it is quite early to expect significant changes in symptoms. It is essential to manage the patient's expectations and reassure them that this timeline is normal. During this period, the healthcare provider should monitor the patient's progress and make any necessary adjustments to the dosage. Additionally, ensuring that the patient adheres to the medication schedule and follows any dietary recommendations can also influence the effectiveness of the treatment.
Therefore, the appropriate response to your patient's concern about the medication not helping yet would be to reassure him that it typically takes 1 to 2 months, and sometimes longer, to see improvements. Encourage him to continue taking the medication as prescribed and to keep a record of his symptoms to discuss during follow-up visits. This ongoing monitoring and communication with the healthcare provider are crucial for adjusting treatment plans and managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease effectively.

NEW QUESTION # 70
In terms of elder abuse, which of the following statements is least accurate?
  • A. Only infants are more likely to sustain serious injury from physical abuse than the elderly.
  • B. Approximately 1% of older adults are neglected or abused in the United States.
  • C. Only one in fourteen elder abuse cases is reported.
  • D. 90% of abusers of older adults are reported to be family members.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement that "approximately 1% of older adults are neglected or abused in the United States" is significantly inaccurate. Research and statistics show that the prevalence of elder abuse is much higher. Estimates indicate that around 10% of older adults experience some form of neglect or abuse, including physical, emotional, sexual abuse, or financial exploitation. This discrepancy highlights the need for greater awareness and more accurate data collection regarding elder abuse.
Elder abuse remains a critical public health and societal issue, and it often goes underreported. Studies suggest that only about one in fourteen cases of elder abuse are reported to authorities, which means the actual numbers might be even higher than the estimates. The reasons for underreporting are complex and include factors such as the victim's fear of retaliation, dependency on the abuser, and lack of awareness about available help.
In terms of the demographics of abusers, it is reported that family members are the perpetrators in approximately 90% of elder abuse cases. This can make it even more challenging for victims to report the abuse, as it involves people within their immediate family circle. The dynamics of family relationships, combined with dependency and emotional bonds, complicate the recognition and reporting of abuse.
Health care providers play a crucial role in identifying and reporting suspected cases of elder abuse. They are often in a position to notice signs of abuse that others might miss and are legally required to report these suspicions to appropriate state protective agencies. This reporting can lead to interventions that protect the elderly from further harm.
Overall, the statement underestimating the prevalence of elder abuse at 1% does not reflect the reality and gravity of the issue. It is important for statistics to accurately represent the scope of elder abuse to ensure that adequate resources, policies, and protective measures are in place to address and prevent such abuse.

NEW QUESTION # 71
Your 32-year-old male patient tells you that he has been experiencing headaches that wake him up at night. He tells you that they are very painful and that the pain originates from behind his eye. He says that they usually last about an hour. These symptoms are most consistent with which of the following types of headache?
  • A. migraine without aura
  • B. tension headache
  • C. migraine with aura
  • D. cluster headache
Answer: D
Explanation:
The symptoms described by the 32-year-old male patient are most consistent with a cluster headache. Cluster headaches are characterized by sudden, severe pain that typically occurs around or behind one eye. The pain of a cluster headache is often described as sharp or burning and can be extremely intense. These headaches are known for their pattern of occurring in clusters, meaning they can happen several times a day for weeks or even months before remitting.
Cluster headaches commonly awaken individuals from sleep, which aligns with the patient's experience of headaches waking him up at night. The duration of these headaches, typically lasting from 15 minutes to 3 hours, also supports the diagnosis of a cluster headache, given the patient's headaches last about an hour.
Additionally, cluster headaches are more prevalent in males, particularly in their late 20s to early 40s, which fits the demographic of the patient in question. Accompanying symptoms often include one or more of the following: lacrimation (tearing of the eye), rhinorrhea (runny nose), ptosis (drooping of the eyelid), conjunctival injection (redness of the eye), and facial sweating. These symptoms usually occur on the same side as the headache pain.
In contrast, other types of headaches like migraines or tension headaches present differently. Migraines often include symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound, and may or may not be preceded by an aura. Tension headaches are usually characterized by a dull, constant pain that feels like a tight band around the head, not the sharp, piercing pain localized to the eye as seen in cluster headaches.
Given the specific symptoms reported by the patient-severe pain behind the eye, the timing of the headaches, and their duration-a diagnosis of cluster headache is most consistent with the clinical presentation. This condition would be best managed with specific treatments that can help prevent the headaches or minimize their severity and frequency, alongside acute treatments to relieve pain when a headache does occur. It is advisable for the patient to consult with a healthcare provider to confirm the diagnosis and discuss appropriate management strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 72
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