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[General] CNPA Dump Check - Actual CNPA Test Answers

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【General】 CNPA Dump Check - Actual CNPA Test Answers

Posted at yesterday 23:40      View：3 | Replies：0        Print      Only Author   [Copy Link] 1#
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Linux Foundation Certified Cloud Native Platform Engineering Associate Sample Questions (Q72-Q77):NEW QUESTION # 72
In a GitOps workflow, what is a secure and efficient method for managing secrets within a Git repository?
  • A. Use environment variables to manage secrets outside the repository.
  • B. Use a secrets management tool and store references in the repository.
  • C. Encrypt secrets and store them directly in the repository.
  • D. Store secrets in plain text within the repository.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The secure and efficient way to handle secrets in a GitOps workflow is to use a dedicated secrets management tool (e.g., HashiCorp Vault, Sealed Secrets, or External Secrets Operator) and store only references or encrypted placeholders in the Git repository. Option B is correct because Git should remain the source of truth for configuration, but sensitive values should be abstracted or encrypted to maintain security.
Option A (environment variables) can supplement secret management but lacks versioning and auditability when used alone. Option C (encrypting secrets in Git) can work with tools like Mozilla SOPS, but it still requires external key management, making Option B a more complete and secure approach. Option D (plain text secrets) is highly insecure and should never be used.
By integrating secrets managers into GitOps workflows, teams achieve both security and automation, ensuring secrets are delivered securely during reconciliation without exposing sensitive data in Git.
References:- CNCF GitOps Principles- CNCF Supply Chain Security Whitepaper- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide

NEW QUESTION # 73
What is the primary purpose of using multiple environments (e.g., development, staging, production) in a cloud native platform?
  • A. Increases application performance by distributing traffic.
  • B. Ensures all applications use the same infrastructure.
  • C. Reduces cloud costs by running applications in different locations.
  • D. Isolates different stages of application development and deployment
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary reason for implementing multiple environments in cloud native platforms is to isolate the different phases of the software development lifecycle. Option A is correct because environments such as development, staging, and production enable testing and validation at each stage without impacting end users. Development environments allow rapid iteration, staging environments simulate production for integration and performance testing, and production environments serve real users.
Option B (reducing costs) may be a side effect but is not the main purpose. Option C (distributing traffic) relates more to load balancing and high availability, not environment separation. Option D is the opposite of the goal-different environments often require tailored infrastructure to meet their distinct purposes.
Isolation through multiple environments is fundamental to reducing risk, supporting continuous delivery, and ensuring stability. This practice also allows for compliance checks, automated testing, and user acceptance validation before changes reach production.
References:- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper- Team Topologies & Platform Engineering Guidance- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide

NEW QUESTION # 74
A team wants to deploy a new feature to production for internal users only and be able to instantly disable it if problems occur, without redeploying code. Which strategy is most suitable?
  • A. Use a canary deployment to gradually expose the feature to a small group of random users.
  • B. Use feature flags to release the feature to selected users and control its availability through settings.
  • C. Use a blue/green deployment to direct internal users to one version and switch as needed.
  • D. Deploy the feature to all users and prepare to roll it back manually if an issue is detected.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Feature flags are the most effective way to control feature exposure to specific users, such as internal testers, while enabling fast rollback without redeployment. Option B is correct because feature flags allow teams to decouple deployment from release, giving precise runtime control over feature availability. This means that once the code is deployed, the team can toggle the feature on or off for different cohorts (e.g., internal users) dynamically.
Option A (blue/green deployment) controls traffic between two environments but does not provide user-level granularity. Option C (canary deployments) gradually expose changes but focus on random subsets of users rather than targeted groups such as internal employees. Option D requires redeployment or rollback, which introduces risk and slows down incident response.
Feature flags are widely recognized in platform engineering as a core continuous delivery practice that improves safety, accelerates experimentation, and enhances resilience by enabling immediate mitigation of issues.
References:- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide- Continuous Delivery Foundation Guidance

NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following statements describes the fundamental relationship between Continuous Integration (CI) and Continuous Delivery (CD) in modern software development?
  • A. CI and CD are entirely separate practices; CI focuses on code quality, while CD focuses on infrastructure management.
  • B. CI is a prerequisite for CD; CI automates the building and testing of code, and CD builds upon this by automating the release process.
  • C. CD is a prerequisite for CI; CD automates the deployment of code and CI builds upon this by automating the integration of code changes.
  • D. CI and CD are interchangeable terms; they both refer to the process of automating software release management.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Continuous Integration (CI) and Continuous Delivery (CD) are complementary practices. Option A is correct:
CI is a prerequisite for CD. CI focuses on automating code integration by building, testing, and validating changes, ensuring code quality and early detection of defects. CD builds upon CI by automating the process of releasing validated builds into staging and production environments, making delivery repeatable and reliable.
Option B incorrectly treats them as entirely separate. Option C reverses the relationship, as CD cannot exist without CI pipelines. Option D is inaccurate because CI and CD are not interchangeable-they represent distinct stages in the software delivery lifecycle.
Together, CI/CD accelerates software delivery, reduces risk, and improves quality. In platform engineering, CI
/CD pipelines are critical enablers of developer productivity and efficient operations.
References:- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper- Continuous Delivery Foundation Guidance- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide

NEW QUESTION # 76
In the context of platform engineering and the effective delivery of platform software, which of the following statements describes the role of CI/CD pipelines in relation to Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) and security scanning?
  • A. CI/CD pipelines are primarily for automating deployments; SBOM generation and security scanning are separate, manual processes performed after deployment.
  • B. CI/CD pipelines should integrate SBOM generation and security scanning as automated steps within the build and test phases to ensure early detection of vulnerabilities and maintain a clear inventory of components.
  • C. CI/CD pipelines are designed to accelerate the delivery of platform software, and adding SBOM generation and security scanning would slow down the process, so these activities are better suited for periodic audits conducted outside of the pipeline.
  • D. SBOM generation and security scanning are particularly valuable for application software. While platform software may have different security considerations, these practices are highly beneficial within CI/CD pipelines for applications.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modern platform engineering requires security and compliance to be integral parts of the delivery process, not afterthoughts. CI/CD pipelines are the foundation for delivering platform software rapidly and reliably, and integrating SBOM generation and automated vulnerability scanning directly within pipelines ensures that risks are identified early in the lifecycle.
Option B is correct because it reflects recommended practices from cloud native platform engineering standards: SBOMs provide a transparent inventory of all software components, including dependencies, which is crucial for vulnerability management, license compliance, and supply chain security. By automating these steps in CI/CD, teams can maintain both velocity and security without manual overhead.
Option A downplays the relevance of SBOMs for platform software, which is inaccurate because platform components (like Kubernetes operators, ingress controllers, or logging agents) are equally susceptible to vulnerabilities. Option C dismisses automation in favor of periodic audits, which contradicts the shift-left security principle. Option D misunderstands CI/CD's purpose: security must be integrated, not separated.
References:- CNCF Supply Chain Security Whitepaper- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide

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