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CDPSE Exam Guide: Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer - CDPSE Exam Collect

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CDPSE Exam Guide: Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer - CDPSE Exam Collect

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ISACA Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer Sample Questions (Q142-Q147):NEW QUESTION # 142
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that organizations need to map the data flows of personal data?
  • A. To evaluate effectiveness of data controls
  • B. To determine data integration gaps
  • C. To comply with regulations
  • D. To assess privacy risks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Data flow mapping is a technique to document how personal data flows within and outside an organization, including the sources, destinations, formats, purposes and legal bases of the data processing activities. Data flow mapping helps organizations to assess privacy risks, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, misuse or loss of data, and to implement appropriate controls to mitigate those risks. Data flow mapping may also help organizations to evaluate the effectiveness of data controls, determine data integration gaps and comply with regulations, but those are not the primary reasons for data flow mapping1, p. 69-70 References: 1:
CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)

NEW QUESTION # 143
Which of the following outputs of a privacy audit is MOST likely to trigger remedial action?
  • A. Deficiencies in how personal data is shared with third parties
  • B. Recommendations to optimize current privacy policy
  • C. Areas of focus for privacy training
  • D. Identification of uses of sensitive personal data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A privacy audit is a systematic and independent examination of an organization's privacy policies, procedures, practices, and controls to assess their compliance with applicable laws, regulations, standards, and best practices. A privacy audit may result in various outputs, such as findings, recommendations, observations, or opinions. Among the options given, the output that is most likely to trigger remedial action is the identification of deficiencies in how personal data is shared with third parties. This is because such deficiencies may pose significant risks to the privacy and security of the data subjects, as well as to the reputation and legal liability of the organization. Remedial action may include implementing contractual safeguards, technical measures, or organizational changes to ensure that third parties respect and protect the personal data they receive from the organization.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 181

NEW QUESTION # 144
Which of the following MOST effectively protects against the use of a network sniffer?
  • A. An intrusion detection system (IDS)
  • B. Network segmentation
  • C. Transport layer encryption
  • D. A honeypot environment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference:
Transport layer encryption is the most effective way to protect against the use of a network sniffer, because it encrypts the data packets that are transmitted over a network, making them unreadable and useless for anyone who intercepts them. Transport layer encryption can be implemented using protocols such as Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), Transport Layer Security (TLS), or Secure Shell (SSH), which provide end-to-end encryption and authentication between the sender and the receiver of the data. By using transport layer encryption, the data can only be decrypted by the intended recipient, who has the proper key or certificate to do so. Therefore, even if a network sniffer captures the data packets, they cannot access or modify the sensitive information contained in them.
What is Packet Sniffing Attack in Network Sniffing?, EC-Council
Packet Sniffing Meaning, Methods, Examples and Best Practices, Spiceworks What is a packet sniffing attack? + how to prevent it, Norton

NEW QUESTION # 145
Which of the following is the BEST approach when providing data subjects with access to their personal data?
  • A. Only allow users to edit data fields that are not derived from their personal information
  • B. Use an email address to automatically generate a unique ID
  • C. Disable user profile data modification so there is no possibility to introduce mistakes
  • D. Create a profile page where users can view their information
Answer: D
Explanation:
Providing data subjects direct access through a profile page is the best practice because it supports transparency and control while fulfilling data subject rights (e.g., access, rectification). Limiting edits (A) or disabling modifications (D) restricts rights. Using email to generate IDs (B) is unrelated to enabling data subject access.
"Data subjects should have the ability to view and manage their own information directly."

NEW QUESTION # 146
Which of the following should an IT privacy practitioner do FIRST before an organization migrates personal data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution?
  • A. Ensure strong encryption is used.
  • B. Perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA).
  • C. Develop and communicate a data security plan.
  • D. Conduct a security risk assessment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The first thing that an IT privacy practitioner should do before an organization migrates personal data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution is to perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA). A PIA is a systematic process of identifying and evaluating the potential privacy risks and impacts of a data processing activity or system. A PIA helps to ensure that privacy is considered and integrated into the design and development of data processing activities or systems, and that privacy risks are mitigated or eliminated. A PIA also helps to determine the appropriate measures to protect personal data in a cloud-hosted solution, such as encryption, pseudonymization, anonymization, access control, audit trail, breach notification, etc. A PIA also helps to comply with the applicable privacy regulations and standards that govern data processing activities in a cloud-hosted solution. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 99

NEW QUESTION # 147
......
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