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[General] 2026 SCS-C03–100% Free Certification Dump | Authoritative SCS-C03 New Dumps Book

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【General】 2026 SCS-C03–100% Free Certification Dump | Authoritative SCS-C03 New Dumps Book

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Amazon AWS Certified Security – Specialty Sample Questions (Q35-Q40):NEW QUESTION # 35
A company runs a public web application on Amazon EKS behind Amazon CloudFront and an Application Load Balancer (ALB). A security engineer must send a notification to an existing Amazon SNS topic when the application receives 10,000 requests from the same end-user IP address within any 5-minute period.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
  • A. Configure VPC Flow Logs and CloudWatch Logs metric filters.
  • B. Configure an AWS WAF web ACL with a rate-based rule. Associate it with CloudFront. Create a CloudWatch alarm to notify SNS.
  • C. Configure an AWS WAF web ACL with an ASN match rule and CloudWatch alarms.
  • D. Configure CloudFront standard logging and CloudWatch Logs metric filters.
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS WAF rate-based rules are designed specifically to track the number of requests from a single IP address over a configurable time window. According to AWS Certified Security - Specialty guidance, rate-based rules integrate natively with CloudFront and emit CloudWatch metrics that can trigger alarms.
CloudFront logs and VPC Flow Logs are not real-time detection tools. ASN match rules do not count request rates.
Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:
AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide
AWS WAF Rate-Based Rules
CloudFront and AWS WAF Integration

NEW QUESTION # 36
A company recently experienced a malicious attack on its cloud-based environment. The company successfully contained and eradicated the attack. A security engineer is performing incident response work.
The security engineer needs to recover an Amazon RDS database cluster to the last known good version. The database cluster is configured to generate automated backups with a retention period of 14 days. The initial attack occurred 5 days ago at exactly 3:15 PM.
Which solution will meet this requirement?
  • A. List all snapshots that have been taken of all the company's RDS databases. Identify the snapshot that was taken closest to 5 days ago at 3:14 PM and restore it.
  • B. Identify the Regional cluster ARN for the database. Use the ARN to restore the Regional cluster by using the restore to point in time feature. Set a target time 5 days ago at 3:14 PM.
  • C. Identify the Regional cluster ARN for the database. Use the ARN to restore the Regional cluster by using the restore to point in time feature. Set a target time 14 days ago.
  • D. Identify the Regional cluster ARN for the database. List snapshots that have been taken of the cluster.
    Restore the database by using the snapshot that has a creation time that is closest to 5 days ago at 3:14 PM.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon RDS supports point-in-time recovery (PITR) using automated backups within the configured retention window. According to the AWS Certified Security - Specialty Study Guide, PITR allows recovery to any second within the retention period, making it the most precise recovery method following a security incident.
By restoring the database cluster to a point just before the attack occurred, such as 3:14 PM, the security engineer ensures that the restored database reflects the last known good state without including malicious changes. This method is more accurate than restoring from snapshots, which are created at fixed intervals and may not align with the exact recovery time.
Options B and C rely on snapshot timing and may reintroduce compromised data. Option D restores to an arbitrary time and does not meet the requirement to recover to the last known good version.
AWS documentation explicitly recommends point-in-time recovery for incident response scenarios that require precise restoration.
Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:
AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide
Amazon RDS Automated Backups and PITR
AWS Incident Response and Recovery Guidance

NEW QUESTION # 37
An application is running on an Amazon EC2 instance that has an IAM role attached. The IAM role provides access to an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed key and an Amazon S3 bucket.
The key is used to access 2 TB of sensitive data that is stored in the S3 bucket. A security engineer discovers a potential vulnerability on the EC2 instance that could result in the compromise of the sensitive data. Due to other critical operations, the security engineer cannot immediately shut down the EC2 instance for vulnerability patching.
What is the FASTEST way to prevent the sensitive data from being exposed?
  • A. Revoke the IAM role's active session permissions. Update the S3 bucket policy to deny access to the IAM role. Remove the IAM role from the EC2 instance profile.
  • B. Disable the current key. Create a new KMS key that the IAM role does not have access to, and re- encrypt all the data with the new key. Schedule the compromised key for deletion.
  • C. Block access to the public range of S3 endpoint IP addresses by using a host-based firewall. Ensure that internet-bound traffic from the affected EC2 instance is routed through the host-based firewall.
  • D. Download the data from the existing S3 bucket to a new EC2 instance. Then delete the data from the S3 bucket. Re-encrypt the data with a client-based key. Upload the data to a new S3 bucket.
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS incident response best practices emphasize rapid containment to prevent further data exposure.
According to the AWS Certified Security - Specialty Study Guide, the fastest and least disruptive containment method for compromised compute resources is to immediately revoke credentials and permissions rather than modifying data or infrastructure.
Revoking the IAM role's active sessions prevents the EC2 instance from continuing to access AWS services.
Updating the S3 bucket policy to explicitly deny access to the IAM role ensures immediate enforcement, even if temporary credentials remain cached. Removing the IAM role from the instance profile further prevents new credentials from being issued.
Option A and D involve large-scale data movement or re-encryption, which is time-consuming and operationally expensive. Option B relies on network-level controls that do not prevent access through private AWS endpoints.
AWS guidance explicitly recommends credential revocation and policy-based denial as the fastest containment step during active incidents.
Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:
AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide
AWS Incident Response Best Practices
AWS IAM Role Session Management

NEW QUESTION # 38
A company has an AWS account that hosts a production application. The company receives an email notification that Amazon GuardDuty has detected an Impact:IAMUser/AnomalousBehavior finding in the account. A security engineer needs to run the investigation playbook for this security incident and must collect and analyze the information without affecting the application.
Which solution will meet these requirements MOST quickly?
  • A. Log in to the AWS account by using administrator credentials. Review the GuardDuty finding for details about the IAM credentials that were used. Use the IAM console to add a DenyAll policy to the IAM principal.
  • B. Log in to the AWS account by using read-only credentials. Review the GuardDuty finding for details about the IAM credentials that were used. Use the IAM console to add a DenyAll policy to the IAM principal.
  • C. Log in to the AWS account by using read-only credentials. Review the GuardDuty finding to determine which API calls initiated the finding. Use Amazon Detective to review the API calls in context.
  • D. Log in to the AWS account by using read-only credentials. Review the GuardDuty finding to determine which API calls initiated the finding. Use AWS CloudTrail Insights and AWS CloudTrail Lake to review the API calls in context.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon GuardDuty findings provide high-level detection of suspicious activity but are not designed for deep investigation on their own. The AWS Certified Security - Specialty documentation explains that Amazon Detective is purpose-built to support rapid investigations by automatically collecting, correlating, and visualizing data from GuardDuty, AWS CloudTrail, and VPC Flow Logs. Detective enables security engineers to analyze API calls, user behavior, and resource interactions in context without making any changes to the environment.
Using read-only credentials ensures that the investigation does not impact the production application. Amazon Detective allows investigators to pivot directly from a GuardDuty finding into a detailed activity graph, showing which IAM user made anomalous calls, what resources were accessed, and how behavior deviated from the baseline. This significantly accelerates incident investigation.
Options A and C involve applying DenyAll policies, which are containment actions and could affect application availability. Option D requires manual analysis and setup and is slower than using Amazon Detective, which is designed for immediate investigative workflows.
AWS incident response guidance recommends using Detective for rapid, non-intrusive analysis after GuardDuty findings.
Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:
AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide
Amazon GuardDuty and Amazon Detective Integration
AWS Incident Response Investigation Best Practices

NEW QUESTION # 39
A security engineer is designing a solution that will provide end-to-end encryption between clients and Docker containers running in Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS). This solution must also handle volatile traffic patterns.
Which solution would have the MOST scalability and LOWEST latency?
  • A. Configure an Application Load Balancer to terminate the TLS traffic and then re-encrypt the traffic to the containers.
  • B. Configure a Network Load Balancer to terminate the TLS traffic and then re-encrypt the traffic to the containers.
  • C. Configure Amazon Route 53 to use multivalue answer routing to send traffic to the containers.
  • D. Configure a Network Load Balancer with a TCP listener to pass through TLS traffic to the containers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Network Load Balancers operate at Layer 4 and are optimized for extreme performance, ultra-low latency, and handling sudden traffic spikes. According to AWS Certified Security - Specialty documentation, using a TCP listener on an NLB allows TLS traffic to pass through directly to backend containers without termination, preserving true end-to-end encryption.
This approach eliminates the overhead of decrypting and re-encrypting traffic at the load balancer, reducing latency and maximizing throughput. NLBs scale automatically to handle volatile traffic patterns and millions of requests per second.
Application Load Balancers operate at Layer 7 and introduce additional latency due to TLS termination and HTTP processing. Route 53 multivalue routing does not provide load balancing at the transport layer and does not ensure encryption handling.
AWS recommends NLB TCP pass-through for high-performance, end-to-end encrypted container workloads.
Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:
AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide
Elastic Load Balancing Architecture
Network Load Balancer Performance Characteristics

NEW QUESTION # 40
......
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