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[General] Quiz 2026 Updated Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Valid Tes

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【General】 Quiz 2026 Updated Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Valid Tes

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q21-Q26):NEW QUESTION # 21
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What should be done if a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested for technical reasons?
  • A. Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly
  • B. Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found
  • C. Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model
  • D. Automate the activities of the new model before it is used
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested due to technical limitations, ITIL 4 emphasizes a risk-based approach to deployment management to ensure stability and minimize disruption. Option C, closely monitoring the first few uses of the new model, aligns with ITIL 4's guidance to proceed cautiously when full testing is not feasible. This approach allows the organization to deploy the model in a controlled environment, observe its performance, and quickly address any issues, thereby reducing risk while gathering real-world data.
Option A (Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found): While testing is ideal, delaying deployment indefinitely until a testing method is found may not be practical, especially if business needs require timely deployment. This option is overly restrictive and does not balance risk with operational demands.
Option B (Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly): Conducting test deployments assumes testing is possible, which contradicts the question's premise that testing cannot be done for technical reasons. This makes the option invalid.
Option C (Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model): This is the most pragmatic approach, as it allows deployment with safeguards like monitoring to mitigate risks, aligning with ITIL's focus on value delivery and risk management.
Option D (Automate the activities of the new model before it is used): Automating an untested model could amplify risks, as automation without validation may propagate errors across environments.

NEW QUESTION # 22
[Use Tools and Techniques for Deployment]
An organization is facing errors and delays when deploying software. An investigation has shown that these are often caused by the need for unplanned manual configuration of the target environments. What is the BEST recommendation for the organization to improve the success rate of deployments?
  • A. Integrate build, test, and deployment activities
  • B. Automate the CI/CD pipeline
  • C. Leverage Infrastructure as Code
  • D. Use incremental deployments
Answer: C
Explanation:
The issue of errors and delays due to unplanned manual configuration of target environments points to inconsistent or poorly managed environments. ITIL 4 recommends leveraging Infrastructure as Code (IaC) (Option A) to address this, as IaC automates and standardizes environment provisioning, ensuring consistency and reducing manual errors.
Option A (Leverage Infrastructure as Code): Correct, as IaC (e.g., using tools like Terraform or Ansible) defines environments in code, enabling repeatable, error-free setups and directly addressing the problem of manual configuration errors.
Option B (Use incremental deployments): Incorrect, as incremental deployments focus on releasing smaller changes but do not address the root cause of environment configuration issues.
Option C (Integrate build, test, and deployment activities): Incorrect, as while integration improves pipeline flow, it does not specifically resolve manual configuration errors in target environments.
Option D (Automate the CI/CD pipeline): Incorrect, as automating the pipeline is a broader solution that may include IaC, but it is not specific enough to address the environment configuration issue directly.

NEW QUESTION # 23
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An organization is aiming to achieve capability level 3 for the deployment management practice. What is an indication of the achievement of capability level 3?
  • A. The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice
  • B. The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities
  • C. Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows
  • D. Deployment models are developed and implemented
Answer: C
Explanation:
ITIL 4 defines capability level 3 for a practice as achieving integration across the organization, where the practice is embedded into broader workflows and understood by related practices. For deployment management, an indication of reaching capability level 3 is when employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows (Option B). This demonstrates cross-functional alignment and maturity, showing that deployment management is not siloed but part of the organization's value streams.
Option A (The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities): Incorrect, as continual improvement is characteristic of higher capability levels (e.g., level 4), not the defining feature of level 3.
Option B (Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows): Correct, as level 3 focuses on integration and collaboration across practices, per ITIL 4's capability framework.
Option C (The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice): Incorrect, as reporting effectiveness is a general management task, not specific to level 3 maturity.
Option D (Deployment models are developed and implemented): Incorrect, as model development occurs at lower capability levels (e.g., level 1 or 2), not a hallmark of level 3.

NEW QUESTION # 24
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which is a key feature of continuous deployment which is not found in other CI/CD stages?
  • A. It predominantly uses staging environments
  • B. It enables users to benefit immediately from changes
  • C. It allows individual decisions about software releases
  • D. It automatically tests software code
Answer: B
Explanation:
Continuous deployment (CD) in ITIL 4 is the most advanced stage of the CI/CD pipeline, where every validated change is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention. The key feature unique to continuous deployment, not found in continuous integration or continuous delivery, is that it enables users to benefit immediately from changes (Option B), as changes reach production instantly after passing automated tests.
Option A (It automatically tests software code): Incorrect, as automated testing is a feature of continuous integration and continuous delivery, not unique to continuous deployment.
Option B (It enables users to benefit immediately from changes): Correct, as continuous deployment automatically pushes validated changes to production, delivering value to users without delay, unlike other CI/CD stages.
Option C (It predominantly uses staging environments): Incorrect, as continuous deployment minimizes reliance on staging environments, deploying directly to production.
Option D (It allows individual decisions about software releases): Incorrect, as continuous deployment eliminates manual release decisions, relying on automation for consistency.

NEW QUESTION # 25
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?
  • A. The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment
  • B. The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment
  • C. The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments
  • D. The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment
Answer: C
Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.

NEW QUESTION # 26
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