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[Hardware] CompTIA CAS-005 Mock Exam - CAS-005 Reliable Braindumps Book

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【Hardware】 CompTIA CAS-005 Mock Exam - CAS-005 Reliable Braindumps Book

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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:
TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.
Topic 2
  • Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Topic 3
  • Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.
Topic 4
  • Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.

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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q53-Q58):NEW QUESTION # 53
After a cybersecurity incident, a security analyst was able to collect a binary that the attacker used on the compromised server. Then the analyst ran the following command:

Which of the following options describes what the analyst is trying to do?
  • A. To replicate the attack in a secure environment
  • B. To reconstruct the timeline of commands executed by the binary
  • C. To extract loCs from the binary used on the attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
The strings utility extracts human-readable text from binary files. Security analysts use it to identify Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) such as URLs, IP addresses, filenames, and commands embedded in the malware.
Option A (reconstructing timeline) would require event logs or forensic timeline tools.

NEW QUESTION # 54
An organization recently implemented a policy that requires all passwords to be rotated every 90 days. An administrator observes a large volume of failed sign-on logs from multiple servers that are often accessed by users. The administrator determines users are disconnecting from the RDP session but not logging off. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent account lockouts?
  • A. Increase the account lockout threshold.
  • B. Extend the allowed session length.
  • C. Enforce password complexity.
  • D. Automate logout of inactive sessions.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When users disconnect from Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) sessions without properly logging off, their sessions remain active on the server. If their passwords are changed due to the 90-day rotation policy, these lingering sessions may attempt to reauthenticate using outdated credentials, leading to multiple failed login attempts and potential account lockouts.
Automating the logout of inactive sessions ensures that disconnected or idle sessions are terminated after a specified period, preventing stale sessions from causing authentication issues. This approach aligns with best practices for session management and helps maintain security compliance.
Reference: CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.1: "Given a scenario, troubleshoot common issues with identity and access management (IAM) components in an enterprise environment."

NEW QUESTION # 55
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:

Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?
  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3
  • E. 4
  • F. 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management

NEW QUESTION # 56
Emails that the marketing department is sending to customers are pomp to the customers' spam folders. The security team is investigating the issue and discovers that the certificates used by the email server were reissued, but DNS records had not been updated.
Which of the following should the security team update in order to fix this issue? (Select three.)
  • A. SASC
  • B. SOA
  • C. DMARC
  • D. SPF
  • E. DKIM
  • F. MX
  • G. DNSSEC
  • H. SAN
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
To prevent emails from being marked as spam, several DNS records related to email authentication need to be properly configured and updated when there are changes to the email server's certificates:
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance): DMARC records help email servers determine how to handle messages that fail SPF or DKIM checks, improving email deliverability and reducing the likelihood of emails being marked as spam.
SPF (Sender Policy Framework): SPF records specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of your domain. Updating the SPF record ensures that the new email server is recognized as an authorized sender.

NEW QUESTION # 57
A company updates its cloud-based services by saving infrastructure code in a remote repository. The code is automatically deployed into the development environment every time the code is saved lo the repository The developers express concern that the deployment often fails, citing minor code issues and occasional security control check failures in the development environment Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to reduce the deployment failures? (Select two).
  • A. Repository branch protection
  • B. Pipeline compliance scanning
  • C. Pre-commit code linting
  • D. Code submit authorization workflow
  • E. Software composition analysis
  • F. Automated regression testing
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
B . Pre-commit code linting: Linting tools analyze code for syntax errors and adherence to coding standards before the code is committed to the repository. This helps catch minor code issues early in the development process, reducing the likelihood of deployment failures.
D . Automated regression testing: Automated regression tests ensure that new code changes do not introduce bugs or regressions into the existing codebase. By running these tests automatically during the deployment process, developers can catch issues early and ensure the stability of the development environment.
Other options:
A . Software composition analysis: This helps identify vulnerabilities in third-party components but does not directly address code quality or deployment failures.
C . Repository branch protection: While this can help manage the code submission process, it does not directly prevent deployment failures caused by code issues or security check failures.
E . Code submit authorization workflow: This manages who can submit code but does not address the quality of the code being submitted.
F . Pipeline compliance scanning: This checks for compliance with security policies but does not address syntax or regression issues.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery" by Jez Humble and David Farley OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on secure coding practices

NEW QUESTION # 58
......
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