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【General】 CIC Study Center - First-grade CBIC Composite Test CIC Price Pass Guaranteed

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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q80-Q85):NEW QUESTION # 80
Each item or package that is prepared for sterilization should be labeled with the
  • A. sterilizer identification number or code.
  • B. cleaning method (e.g., mechanical or manual).
  • C. storage location.
  • D. type of sterilization process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, "sterilizer identification number or code," as this is the essential information that each item or package prepared for sterilization should be labeled with. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, proper labeling of sterilized items is a critical component of infection prevention and control to ensure traceability and verify the sterilization process. The sterilizer identification number or code links the item to a specific sterilization cycle, allowing the infection preventionist (IP) and sterile processing staff to track the equipment used, confirm compliance with standards (e.g., AAMI ST79), and facilitate recall or investigation if issues arise (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.3 - Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment). This labeling ensures that the sterility of the item can be assured and documented, protecting patient safety by preventing the use of inadequately processed items.
Option A (storage location) is important for inventory management but is not directly related to the sterilization process itself and does not provide evidence of the sterilization event. Option B (type of sterilization process) indicates the method (e.g., steam, ethylene oxide), which is useful but less critical than the sterilizer identification, as the process type alone does not confirm the specific cycle or equipment used.
Option D (cleaning method, e.g., mechanical or manual) is a preliminary step in reprocessing, but it is not required on the sterilization label, as the focus shifts to sterilization verification once the item is prepared.
The requirement for a sterilizer identification number or code aligns with CBIC's emphasis on maintaining rigorous tracking and quality assurance in the reprocessing of medical devices, ensuring accountability and adherence to best practices (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks). This practice is mandated by standards such as AAMI ST79 to support effective infection control in healthcare settings.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.3 - Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment, 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks. AAMI ST79:2017, Comprehensive guide to steam sterilization and sterility assurance in health care facilities.

NEW QUESTION # 81
A 36-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a petechial rash, meningitis, and cardiac arrest. During the resuscitation, a phlebotomist sustained a needlestick injury. The next day, blood cultures reveal Neisseria meningitidis. The exposure management for the phlebotomist is:
  • A. A review of the phlebotomist's hepatitis B vaccine status.
  • B. Work furlough from day ten to day 21 after exposure.
  • C. A tuberculin skin test now and in ten weeks.
  • D. Prophylactic rifampin plus isoniazid.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario involves a needlestick injury sustained by a phlebotomist during the resuscitation of a patient diagnosed with Neisseria meningitidis infection, characterized by a petechial rash, meningitis, and cardiac arrest. Neisseria meningitidis is a gram-negative diplococcus that can cause meningococcal disease, including meningitis and septicemia, and is transmitted through direct contact with respiratory secretions or, in rare cases, blood exposure. The exposure management for the phlebotomist must align with infection control guidelines, such as those from the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) and the CDC, to prevent potential infection. Let's evaluate each option:
* A. Prophylactic rifampin plus isoniazid: Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended for close contacts of individuals with meningococcal disease to prevent secondary cases. Rifampin is a standard prophylactic agent for Neisseria meningitidis exposure, typically administered as a 2-day course (e.g., 600 mg every
12 hours for adults). Isoniazid, however, is used for tuberculosis (TB) prophylaxis and is not indicated for meningococcal disease. Combining rifampin with isoniazid is incorrect, as it reflects a confusion with TB management rather than meningococcal exposure. This option is not appropriate.
* B. A tuberculin skin test now and in ten weeks: A tuberculin skin test (TST) or interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) is used to screen for latent tuberculosis infection, with a follow-up test at 8-10 weeks to detect conversion after potential TB exposure. Neisseria meningitidis is not related to TB, and a needlestick injury from a meningococcal patient does not warrant TB testing. This option is irrelevant to the scenario and not the correct exposure management.
* C. Work furlough from day ten to day 21 after exposure: Neisseria meningitidis has an incubation period of 2-10 days, with a maximum of about 14 days in rare cases. The CDC and WHO recommend that healthcare workers exposed to meningococcal disease via needlestick or mucosal exposure be monitored for signs of infection (e.g., fever, rash) and, if symptomatic, isolated and treated.
Additionally, a work restriction or furlough from day 10 to day 21 after exposure is advised to cover the potential incubation period, especially if prophylaxis is declined or contraindicated. This allows time to observe for symptoms and prevents transmission to vulnerable patients. This is a standard infection control measure and the most appropriate initial management step pending prophylaxis decision.
* D. A review of the phlebotomist's hepatitis B vaccine status: Reviewing hepatitis B vaccine status is a critical step following a needlestick injury, as hepatitis B can be transmitted through blood exposure.
However, this applies to bloodborne pathogens (e.g., HBV, HCV, HIV) and is not specific to Neisseria meningitidis, which is primarily a respiratory or mucosal pathogen. While hepatitis B management (e.
g., post-exposure prophylaxis with hepatitis B immunoglobulin or vaccine booster) should be addressed as part of a comprehensive needlestick protocol, it is not the first or most relevant priority for meningococcal exposure.
The best answer is C, as the work furlough from day 10 to day 21 after exposure addresses the specific risk of meningococcal disease following a needlestick injury. This aligns with CBIC's focus on timely intervention and work restriction to prevent transmission in healthcare settings. Prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., rifampin) should also be considered, but the question asks for the exposure management, and furlough is a primary control measure. Hepatitis B and TBconsiderations are secondary and managed separately.
:
CBIC Infection Prevention and Control (IPC) Core Competency Model (updated 2023), Domain III:
Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases, which includes protocols for managing exposure to communicable diseases like meningococcal infection.
CBIC Examination Content Outline, Domain IV: Environment of Care, which addresses work restrictions and exposure management.
CDC Guidelines for Meningococcal Disease Prevention and Control (2023), which recommend work furlough and monitoring for exposed healthcare workers.

NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following is included in an effective respiratory hygiene program in healthcare facilities?
  • A. Separate entrance for symptomatic patients and visitors
  • B. Temperature monitoring devices at clinical unit entrance
  • C. Mask availability at building entrance and reception
  • D. Community educational brochures campaign
Answer: C
Explanation:
An effective respiratory hygiene program in healthcare facilities aims to reduce the transmission of respiratory pathogens, such as influenza, COVID-19, and other droplet- or airborne infectious agents, by promoting practices that minimize the spread from infected individuals. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the importance of such programs within the "revention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domain, aligning with guidelines from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). The CDC's "Guideline for Isolation Precautions" (2007) and its respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette recommendations outline key components, including source control, education, and environmental measures to protect patients, visitors, and healthcare workers.
Option B, "Mask availability at building entrance and reception," is a core element of an effective respiratory hygiene program. Providing masks at entry points ensures that symptomatic individuals can cover their mouth and nose, reducing the dispersal of respiratory droplets. This practice, often referred to as source control, is a primary strategy to interrupt transmission, especially in high-traffic areas like entrances and receptions. The CDC recommends that healthcare facilities offer masks or tissues and no-touch receptacles for disposal as part of respiratory hygiene, making this a practical and essential inclusion.
Option A, "Community educational brochures campaign," is a valuable adjunct to raise awareness among the public about respiratory hygiene (e.g., covering coughs, hand washing). However, it is an external strategy rather than a direct component of the facility's internal program, which focuses on immediate action within the healthcare setting. Option C, "Separate entrance for symptomatic patients and visitors," can enhance infection control by segregating potentially infectious individuals, but it is not a universal requirement and depends on facility resources and design. The CDC suggests this as an optional measure during outbreaks, not a standard element of every respiratory hygiene program. Option D, "Temperature monitoring devices at clinical unit entrance," is a useful screening tool to identify febrile individuals, which may indicate infection.
However, it is a surveillance measure rather than a core hygiene practice, and its effectiveness is limited without accompanying interventions like masking.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines prioritize actionable, facility-based interventions like mask provision to mitigate transmission risks. The availability of masks at key entry points directly supports the goal of respiratory hygiene by enabling immediate source control, making Option B the most appropriate answer.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions: Preventing Transmission of Infectious Agents in Healthcare Settings, 2007.

NEW QUESTION # 83
Working with public health agencies to collect and analyze indicators that might signal an increase in community illness is an example of which type of surveillance?
  • A. Syndromic
  • B. Targeted
  • C. Active
  • D. Passive
Answer: A
Explanation:
Surveillance is a critical tool in infection prevention and control, used to monitor disease trends and guide public health responses. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the "Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation" domain, which aligns withthe Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) "rinciples of Epidemiology in Public Health Practice" (3rd Edition, 2012). The question describes a process of collecting and analyzing indicators to signal an increase in community illness, requiring identification of the appropriate surveillance type among the options provided.
Option C, "Syndromic," is the correct answer. Syndromic surveillance involves monitoring non-specific health indicators or symptoms (e.g., fever, respiratory complaints, or gastrointestinal issues) that may precede a formal diagnosis, aiming to detect potential outbreaks or increases in community illness early. The CDC defines syndromic surveillance as the real-time or near-real-time collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data to provide actionable information, often in collaboration with public health agencies. This approach uses data from sources like emergency department visits, over-the-counter medication sales, or absenteeism reports to identify trends before laboratory confirmation, making it well-suited to the described scenario of signaling community illness increases.
Option A, "assive," involves healthcare providers or laboratories reporting cases to public health authorities on a voluntary or mandatory basis without active prompting (e.g., routine notifiable disease reporting). While passive surveillance contributes to baseline data, it is less proactive and not specifically designed to signal early increases in illness, making it less fitting. Option B, "Active," entails public health officials actively seeking data from healthcare facilities or providers (e.g., calling to confirm cases during an outbreak). This is more resource-intensive and typically used for specific investigations rather than ongoing community trend monitoring, which aligns better with syndromic methods. Option D, "Targeted," refers to surveillance focused on a specific population, disease, or event (e.g., monitoring TB in a high-risk group). The scenario's broad focus on community illness indicators does not suggest a targeted approach.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines highlight syndromic surveillance as a key strategy for early detection of community-wide health threats, often involving collaboration with public health agencies. Option C best matches the described activity of analyzing indicators to signal illness increases, making it the correct choice.
References:
CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
CDC Principles of Epidemiology in Public Health Practice, 3rd Edition, 2012.
CDC Syndromic Surveillance Systems, 2020.

NEW QUESTION # 84
In a retrospective case-control study, the initial case group is composed of persons
  • A. with the risk factor under investigation
  • B. without the disease.
  • C. without the risk factor under investigation
  • D. with the disease
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a retrospective case-control study, cases and controls are selected based on disease status. The case group is composed of individuals who have the disease (cases), while the control group consists of individuals without the disease. This design allows researchers to look back in time to assess exposure to potential risk factors.
Step-by-Step Justification:
* Selection of Cases and Controls:
* Cases: Individuals who already have the disease.
* Controls: Individuals without the disease but similar in other aspects.
* Direction of Study:
* A retrospective study moves backward from the disease outcome to investigate potential causes or risk factors.
* Data Collection:
* Uses past medical records, interviews, and laboratory results to determine past exposures.
* Common Use:
* Useful for studying rare diseases since cases have already occurred, making it cost-effective compared to cohort studies.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* B. without the disease: (Incorrect) This describes the control group, not the case group.
* C. with the risk factor under investigation: (Incorrect) Risk factors are identified after selecting cases and controls.
* D. without the risk factor under investigation: (Incorrect) The study investigates whether cases had prior exposure, not whether they lacked a risk factor.
CBIC Infection Control References:
* APIC Text, Chapter on Epidemiologic Study Design.

NEW QUESTION # 85
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