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[Hardware] CPC Reliable Study Plan & CPC Valid Exam Camp

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【Hardware】 CPC Reliable Study Plan & CPC Valid Exam Camp

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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q323-Q328):NEW QUESTION # 323
A patient is seen at the doctor's office for nausea, vomiting, and sharp right lower abdominal pain. CT scan of the abdomen is ordered. Labs come back indicating an increased WBC count with review of the abdominal CT scan. The physician determines the patient has a ruptured appendicitis. The physician schedules an appendectomy and takes the patient to the operating room. The appendix is severed from the intestines and removed via scope inserted through an umbilical incision. What CPT and diagnosis codes are reported?
  • A. 44960. K35.80. R11.2.R10.31
  • B. 44970, K35.32.R11.2.R10.31
  • C. 44950. K35.890
  • D. 44970, K35.32
Answer: D
Explanation:
Procedure Coding:
44970 - Laparoscopic appendectomy
Appendix removed via scope through umbilical incision, confirming laparoscopic approach Diagnosis Coding:
K35.32 - Acute appendicitis with perforation and localized peritonitis, without abscess Documentation supports ruptured (perforated) appendicitis No abscess documented Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B - Signs/symptoms (R11.2, R10.31) not coded once definitive diagnosis is established C - 44960 = open appendectomy (not performed) D - 44950 = open appendectomy, diagnosis code incorrect ICD-10-CM Guideline Reference:
Do not code symptoms when a definitive diagnosis is confirmed.

NEW QUESTION # 324
A surgeon removes the right and left fallopian tubes and the left ovary via an abdominal incision. How is this reported?
  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 58700-50
  • D. 58720-50
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy: This involves the removal of both fallopian tubes and ovaries.
* Right and left fallopian tubes: Both fallopian tubes are removed.
* Left ovary: Only the left ovary is removed.
* Abdominal incision: The procedure is performed via an abdominal approach.
* 58720: Salpingo-oophorectomy, complete or partial, unilateral or bilateral (separate procedure).
The procedure involves the removal of both fallopian tubes and one ovary, making 58720 the appropriate code.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year), HCPCS Level II (current year)

NEW QUESTION # 325
Which is a malignant neoplasm originating in the skin?
  • A. Lymphoma
  • B. Hemangioma
  • C. Osteosarcoma
  • D. Melanoma
Answer: D
Explanation:
Melanoma is a malignant neoplasm of melanocytes, which are pigment-producing cells found primarily in the skin. It is one of the most serious forms of skin cancer and is classified under ICD-10-CM category C43.- (Malignant melanoma of skin).
Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor of bone, not skin (ICD-10-CM C40-C41).
Hemangioma is a benign tumor of blood vessels and is not malignant (often coded under D18.-).
Lymphoma is a malignancy of the lymphatic system, not a primary skin neoplasm (ICD-10-CM C81-C85), though rare cutaneous lymphomas exist, they are not the standard CPC exam answer here.

NEW QUESTION # 326

Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 903096
What CPTand ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
  • A. 62290, M54.50
  • B. 62292, M54.50
  • C. 62292, M48.07, M54.50
  • D. 62290, M48.061, M54.50
Answer: A
Explanation:
* CPT Code 62290: Discography, lumbar, single or multiple levels, radiological supervision and interpretation
* This code accurately describes the procedure performed. The documentation indicates a lumbar discography was performed at a single level (L3-4) with radiological supervision (C-arm visualization).
* ICD-10-CM Code M54.50: Low back pain, unspecified
* This code is the most appropriate diagnosis based on the documentation. The preoperative diagnosis states "Low back pain possible spinal stenosis L3-4." While spinal stenosis was considered, it was not confirmed. The postoperative diagnosis indicates no evidence of spinal stenosis or discogenic pathology. Therefore, the definitive diagnosis is low back pain.
Why other options are incorrect:
* 62292: This code is for a discography with injection of contrast and/or medication for therapeutic purposes. The documentation doesn't indicate any therapeutic injection was performed.
* M48.061 and M48.07: These codes represent spinal stenosis, which was not confirmed in the postoperative diagnosis.
References:
* CPT Code 62290: Discography, lumbar, single or multiple levels, radiological supervision and interpretation
* ICD-10-CM Code M54.50: Low back pain, unspecified
* AAPC Coder's Desk Reference: This resource provides detailed information on coding guidelines and procedures.

NEW QUESTION # 327
A patient with three thyroid nodules is seen for an FNA biopsy. Using ultrasonic guidance, the provider inserts a 25-gauge needle into each nodule. Nodular tissue is aspirated and sent to pathology.
What CPT coding reported?
  • A. 10006 x 3
  • B. 10021, 10004 x 2, 76942
  • C. 10005, 10006 x 2, 76942
  • D. 10005, 10006 x 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
The CPT code 10005 is for fine needle aspiration biopsy, including ultrasound guidance, for the first lesion. CPT code 10006 is for each additional lesion with ultrasound guidance. Since the provider aspirated tissue from three nodules, the coding should be 10005 for the first nodule and 10006 x 2 for the additional two nodules.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)

NEW QUESTION # 328
......
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