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[General] CSC2 Certification Cost - Valid Braindumps CSC2 Ppt

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【General】 CSC2 Certification Cost - Valid Braindumps CSC2 Ppt

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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q181-Q186):NEW QUESTION # 181
What actions can a government take to lower a $40 billion national deficit?
  • A. Increase taxation
  • B. Decrease taxation
  • C. Increase government spending.
  • D. Increase interest rates.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To reduce a national deficit, governments canincrease taxationto generate more revenue. This measure, combined with controlled spending, helps reduce the shortfall between revenues and expenditures.
* B. Increase government spending: This would increase the deficit further unless matched by revenue increases.
* C. Decrease taxation: This would reduce revenue and worsen the deficit.
* D. Increase interest rates: This impacts monetary policy and borrowing costs but does not directly reduce a fiscal deficit.

NEW QUESTION # 182
A shareholder receives rights from a company through direct ownership in shares. Not expecting to exercise them, she sells the rights on the relevant exchange. What is her capital gain?
  • A. The current share price less the exercise price of the rights.
  • B. The current price of the shares less the sale price of the rights.
  • C. The sale price of the rights.
  • D. The sale price less the exercise price of the rights.
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 183
What is the difference between sinking funds and purchase funds concerning the redemption of bonds poor to maturity?
  • A. Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds Involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed.
  • B. Sinking funds have mandated redemptions while purchase funds can redeem only upon certain market conditions.
  • C. Sinking funds can redeem fie bones any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule.
  • D. Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price while purchase runes do not have such a requirement.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Sinking funds require the issuer to redeem a specified portion of the bond issue at regular intervals. This ensures systematic debt reduction and is mandated regardless of market conditions.
* Purchase funds, however, allow the issuer to buy back bonds only if they are available in the market at or below a stipulated price, making redemption conditional on market conditions.
* B. Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price: This applies to purchase funds, not sinking funds.
* C. Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed: Investors have no role in determining bond redemption under either method.
* D. Sinking funds can redeem the bonds any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule:
Sinking funds follow a schedule, and purchase funds rely on market conditions.
Reference:CSC Volume 1, Chapter 6, "Bond Features - Sinking Funds and Purchase Funds" explains these mechanisms for bond redemption.

NEW QUESTION # 184
After reviewing a client's risk tolerance, time horizon and financial objectives. Andy recommends that a long- term asset mix of 55% equities, 40 bonds and 5% cash would be most appropriate for the client.
Which approach has Andy taken in his recommendation?
  • A. Strategic asset allocation
  • B. Tactical asset allocation
  • C. Dynamic asset allocation
  • D. Ongoing asset allocation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Strategic asset allocation is a long-term approach to portfolio management where a target allocation among asset classes (e.g., equities, bonds, cash) is established based on the client's risk tolerance, time horizon, and financial objectives. This allocation remains relatively constant over time, with periodic rebalancing to maintain the original proportions.
* Details of Andy's Recommendation:Andy recommends a fixed asset mix of 55% equities, 40% bonds, and 5% cash, which aligns with the principles of strategic asset allocation. The focus is on maintaining this allocation to meet long-term goals, without frequent shifts based on short-term market movements.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. Dynamic asset allocation: This involves frequent changes to asset allocation in response to market trends, which is not evident in Andy's recommendation.
* B. Tactical asset allocation: This is a short-term, active approach where adjustments are made based on market conditions to capitalize on opportunities.
* D. Ongoing asset allocation: While this involves periodic rebalancing, it is not a defined approach like strategic allocation.
:
CSC Volume 2, Chapter 16: Asset allocation strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 185
A fixed-rate bond was originally priced at $100 and paid $5 per year in interest. Currently, the bond is trading at $102.75. What is the impact on the current yield of coupon of the bond as a result of the change in price?
  • A. The current yield is lower than 5%
  • B. The current yield is higher man 5%.
  • C. The coupon is higher than 5%.
  • D. The coupon is lower than 5%.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Thecoupon rateof the bond remains fixed at5%, as it is based on the bond's original par value of $100.
Thecurrent yield, however, decreases because the bond's price has increased to $102.75. Current yield is calculated as:
Current Yield=Coupon PaymentCurrent Price        ext{Current Yield} = rac{        ext{Coupon Payment}}{        ext
{Current Price}}Current Yield=Current PriceCoupon Payment
Given:
* Coupon Payment= $5
* Current Price= $102.75
Current Yield=5102.75#4.87%        ext{Current Yield} = rac{5}{102.75} approx 4.87%Current Yield=102.
755#4.87%
* A. The coupon is higher than 5%: The coupon remains fixed at 5%.
* B. The current yield is higher than 5%: The current yield is lower than 5% due to the increased price.
* D. The coupon is lower than 5%: The coupon does not change with the bond's price.

NEW QUESTION # 186
......
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