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[General] Exam Sample AANP-FNP Questions - Exam AANP-FNP Cost

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【General】 Exam Sample AANP-FNP Questions - Exam AANP-FNP Cost

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Nursing AANP Family Nurse Practitioner (AANP-FNP) Sample Questions (Q73-Q78):NEW QUESTION # 73
When taking a patient's past medical history you would ask about all of the following EXCEPT:
  • A. TB test
  • B. surgeries
  • C. dietary patterns
  • D. childhood and adult illnesses
Answer: C
Explanation:
When taking a patient's past medical history, the healthcare provider generally focuses on gathering information that directly pertains to the patient's medical conditions, treatments, and overall health status. This typically includes inquiries about:
**Childhood and Adult Illnesses:** Understanding a patient's history of illnesses, both in childhood and adulthood, is crucial. This information helps in recognizing patterns of chronic or genetic diseases and provides insights into potential future health risks or ongoing management of existing conditions.
**TB Test:** Information about tuberculosis tests is relevant as TB is a critical infectious disease with potential long-term health implications. Knowing whether a patient has been tested, and the results of those tests, can significantly affect clinical decisions, especially in managing immunocompromised patients or those with symptoms of tuberculosis.
**Surgeries:** Knowledge of any past surgical interventions provides insights into the patient's medical history and can impact future healthcare decisions. Details of surgical history, including the type of surgeries and their outcomes, are essential for a comprehensive understanding of a patient's current health status and potential complications.
**Dietary Patterns:** Although knowing a patient's dietary habits can be helpful, especially in the context of nutritional assessments or chronic diseases management (like diabetes or heart diseases), it is typically not part of the core past medical history. Dietary patterns are usually discussed within the scope of a psychosocial history, which examines lifestyle factors and social determinants of health that can influence a patient's well-being. This includes the patient's eating habits, exercise routines, and other lifestyle choices. In summary, while childhood and adult illnesses, TB tests, and surgeries are integral components of a patient's past medical history, dietary patterns are generally classified under psychosocial history. This distinction is important for organizing the patient interview and ensuring that the most relevant information is gathered efficiently to inform medical decision-making.

NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following is NOT part of the ethical decision making process for the nurse practitioner?
  • A. The ethical behavior of nurses has been defined for professional nursing in an American Practice Act policy statement.
  • B. Ethical behavior incorporates respect for the individual and his or her autonomy.
  • C. Duty to help others, beneficence, is a foundational component of ethical behavior.
  • D. Moral concepts such as advocacy, accountability, loyalty, caring, compassion, and human dignity are the foundations of ethical behavior.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question asks which of the provided statements is not part of the ethical decision-making process for a nurse practitioner. To answer this, it is crucial to understand the sources and guidelines that define the ethical behavior expected of nurses.
Moral concepts such as advocacy, accountability, loyalty, caring, compassion, and human dignity indeed form the core of ethical behavior in nursing. These values guide nurse practitioners in their daily interactions and decision-making with patients, ensuring that each patient is treated with respect and compassion. Therefore, this statement is related to the ethical decision-making process.
The statement about the duty to help others, or beneficence, also directly ties into ethical decision-making. Beneficence involves acting in the best interest of the patient, which is a fundamental ethical principle in healthcare. This includes actions that aim to prevent and remove harm and to improve the situation of others. Thus, this statement is undoubtedly a part of the ethical decision-making process in nursing.
Ethical behavior incorporating respect for the individual and his or her autonomy is another crucial component. Autonomy respects the patient's right to make informed decisions about their own health care. This respect is manifested by providing all necessary information to the patient and ensuring they understand it, thereby enabling them to make informed decisions. This principle is a cornerstone of ethical practice in nursing and is integral to the ethical decision-making process.
However, the statement claiming that the ethical behavior of nurses has been defined by the American Practice Act is incorrect. Ethical guidelines for nurses are primarily outlined by the American Nurses Association (ANA), not the American Practice Act. The ANA provides the Code of Ethics for Nurses, which details the ethical obligations and duties of everyone in the nursing profession, rather than being defined by legislative acts like the American Practice Act. The correct ethical standards and guidelines are crucial for informing the ethical decision-making process, but this statement incorrectly identifies the source of these standards.
Therefore, the statement that is NOT part of the ethical decision-making process for the nurse practitioner is the one that misattributes the source of ethical guidelines to the American Practice Act, rather than correctly attributing them to the American Nurses Association. This misattribution can lead to misunderstandings about the origin and authority of ethical guidelines in nursing practice.

NEW QUESTION # 75
If a patient comes to the clinic complaining of an abrupt onset of unilateral facial paralysis with no other symptoms, which of the following might the nurse practitioner suspect?
  • A. Temporal arteritis
  • B. Polymyalgia rheumatica
  • C. Tic Douloureux
  • D. Bell's palsy
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a patient presents with the sudden onset of unilateral facial paralysis and no accompanying symptoms, Bell's palsy is a primary condition to consider. Bell's palsy is a neurological disorder that results in temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles. This condition is thought to stem from inflammation or compression of the facial nerve, known as cranial nerve VII. The exact cause of this inflammation is not always clear, but it is often linked to viral infections that can cause swelling of the nerve.
The hallmark of Bell's palsy is the rapid onset of paralysis, typically unfolding over hours to a day, and generally affecting only one side of the face. Patients may notice that they are unable to move their facial muscles on the affected side. This can include the inability to close the eye, raise the eyebrow, smile, or frown on that side. The face might look drooped or asymmetrical. Despite the dramatic presentation, most patients with Bell's palsy experience a significant improvement in symptoms within weeks, and complete recovery is possible within several months.
While Bell's palsy is a likely diagnosis in cases of sudden unilateral facial paralysis, other conditions might also be considered. These include: - **Tic Douloureux (Trigeminal Neuralgia)**: This condition affects the trigeminal nerve, another cranial nerve, but it is characterized by severe, episodic facial pain rather than muscle paralysis. - **Temporal arteritis**: This involves inflammation of the arteries in the temple area of the head. It can cause pain and, in severe cases, vision loss, rather than facial paralysis. - **Polymyalgia rheumatica**: This is an inflammatory disorder that causes muscle pain and stiffness, especially in the shoulders and hips, rather than isolated facial paralysis.
Given these alternatives, Bell's palsy remains the most consistent with the symptoms of abrupt unilateral facial paralysis without other accompanying signs. Diagnosis is typically clinical but can be supported by ruling out other causes through patient history, physical examination, and possibly imaging or other diagnostic tests. Treatment for Bell's palsy may involve corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and swelling around the facial nerve. In some cases, antiviral medications may be used, especially if a viral infection is suspected to be the underlying cause.

NEW QUESTION # 76
You have a patient who has tripped and fallen on his face and has a tooth fracture. Upon examination you observe a full fracture of the tooth involving the enamel, dentin, and pulp. Pink tissue is seen in the fracture. This fracture would be classified as which of the following?
  • A. Ellis I
  • B. Ellis II
  • C. Ellis III
  • D. avulsion
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct classification for the described tooth fracture is an Ellis III fracture. This classification is used to identify tooth fractures that involve the full thickness of the tooth, including the enamel, dentin, and pulp layers.
An Ellis III fracture is more severe than Ellis I or Ellis II fractures because it extends through all three layers of the tooth. The enamel, which is the outermost protective layer of the tooth, is compromised, as is the dentin, which forms the bulk of the tooth structure beneath the enamel. Most critically, the pulp, which contains the tooth's nerve and blood supply, is also exposed. The visibility of pink tissue within the fracture site typically indicates that the pulp is involved and possibly damaged, which can lead to pain, sensitivity, and risk of infection.
The presence of pulp exposure in an Ellis III fracture necessitates prompt and specific treatment to prevent complications such as pulp necrosis or infection that could lead to an abscess or more widespread oral health issues. Management of an Ellis III fracture generally involves either a root canal procedure to remove the damaged pulp and seal off the tooth or, if the tooth is too severely damaged, extraction. In either case, a dental specialist, such as an endodontist or oral surgeon, would likely be involved in the treatment.
Immediate steps before seeing a specialist should include covering the exposed area to reduce pain and prevent contamination. Dental wax or temporary dental cement can be applied to seal off the exposure temporarily. Additionally, it is important to advise the patient to avoid chewing with the fractured tooth and to maintain good oral hygiene to minimize further contamination.
Referral to an oral surgeon or endodontist is crucial for proper management of an Ellis III fracture. These specialists can provide the most appropriate treatment options based on the extent of the fracture and the condition of the tooth and surrounding tissues. Timely and appropriate management is essential to optimize outcomes for the patient and preserve as much of the natural tooth structure as possible.

NEW QUESTION # 77
Your 62-year-old female patient was diagnosed with subscapular bursitis. The most likely cause of this is that she works on an assembly line using a repeated back-and-forth motion. You are using several conservative measures to treat this but after 6 weeks, results are minimal. What is your next step for this patient?
  • A. massage
  • B. appropriate exercise
  • C. antimicrobial therapy
  • D. intrabursal corticosteroid injection
Answer: D
Explanation:
The recommended next step for a 62-year-old female patient diagnosed with subscapular bursitis, especially after conservative measures such as physiotherapy, rest, and NSAIDs have shown minimal improvement, is an intrabursal corticosteroid injection. Subscapular bursitis involves inflammation of the bursa located beneath the scapula. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who perform repetitive activities, such as working on an assembly line with repeated back-and-forth motions.
Intrabursal corticosteroid injections are commonly used when conservative treatments fail to provide relief. Corticosteroids are potent anti-inflammatory agents that can effectively reduce inflammation and pain within the bursa. The injection is administered directly into the bursa to maximize its effectiveness while minimizing systemic side effects.
It is essential to inform the patient about the potential side effects and complications associated with corticosteroid injections. Commonly, patients may experience soreness and discomfort at the injection site for a few days. Although less common, there are risks of tissue atrophy and severe inflammatory reactions at the injection site. These side effects are rare but should be discussed so that the patient can make an informed decision.
Following the injection, the patient should be monitored for improvement and any adverse reactions. If symptoms persist or worsen, further diagnostic evaluation may be necessary to reassess the condition and consider alternative treatments or interventions. Additionally, modifying the patient's work environment and activities to reduce repetitive strain on the affected area can help prevent recurrence of the condition.

NEW QUESTION # 78
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