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Prepare Exam With Latest Nursing ACNS Exam Questions

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Prepare Exam With Latest Nursing ACNS Exam Questions

Posted at yesterday 20:22      View：20 | Replies：0        Print      Only Author   [Copy Link] 1#
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Nursing ANCC Adult Health Clinical Nurse Specialist Certification (ACNS) Sample Questions (Q181-Q186):NEW QUESTION # 181
The MAST screening tests patients for what disease?
  • A. cataracts
  • B. diabetes mellitus
  • C. alcoholism
  • D. osteoporosis
Answer: C
Explanation:
The MAST screening, or the Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test, is specifically designed to help healthcare providers identify individuals who may be suffering from alcoholism. This test consists of a series of questions that the patient answers, which can indicate patterns of alcohol abuse.
The effectiveness of MAST lies in its structured approach to assessing the frequency and impact of alcohol consumption on a person's life. It considers various aspects such as legal issues, social behavior changes, and personal attitude shifts towards alcohol use. By evaluating these responses, the MAST can provide a quantitative measure of alcohol dependency risk, which can be crucial for early intervention.
It's important to note that the MAST is not the only tool available for screening alcoholism. The CAGE questionnaire is another popular method used by healthcare professionals. This tool is shorter and consists of four questions that focus more on the emotional consequences of drinking. While both MAST and CAGE are effective, they serve slightly different purposes and are used based on specific clinical judgments about a patient's condition.
In summary, the MAST screening test is an essential tool in the detection and management of alcoholism, helping to initiate timely healthcare interventions and support systems necessary for individuals struggling with alcohol dependency.

NEW QUESTION # 182
A male patient is in the office with a deep cough, which is worse at night, as well as wheezing and mucoid sputum production. A diagnosis of bronchitis is made. Which of the following is NOT a good management technique?
  • A. Tell the patient to avoid antihistamines.
  • B. Cough suppressants are encouraged in all cases.
  • C. Antibiotic treatment is not recommended in uncomplicated acute bronchitis.
  • D. Tell the patient to stop smoking.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The question is about the appropriate management techniques for a patient diagnosed with bronchitis. Bronchitis typically involves inflammation of the bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from the lungs. This inflammation results in symptoms such as a deep cough, wheezing, and production of mucoid sputum, often worsening at night.
Among the management options presented, the incorrect one is that "Cough suppressants are encouraged in all cases." This statement is not appropriate for managing bronchitis for several reasons: 1. **Purpose of Coughing**: Coughing is a protective mechanism by which the body attempts to clear the airways of mucus and other irritants. Suppressing this cough could lead to further accumulation of mucus, which can harbor pathogens and potentially worsen the respiratory infection. 2. **Sleep Disruption**: While it is true that severe coughing can disrupt sleep and impact overall rest and recovery, the use of cough suppressants is generally recommended only in cases where the cough is excessively bothersome, particularly at night. This helps ensure that the patient can rest, which is crucial for recovery. During daytime, however, it is often better to allow coughing to continue its role in clearing the bronchial passages.
Other management techniques mentioned alongside the question of cough suppressants include: - **Telling the patient to avoid antihistamines**: This is considered a good management technique because antihistamines can dry up secretions, making it harder to clear mucus, potentially worsening the patient's condition. - **Telling the patient to stop smoking**: Smoking cessation is crucial in managing bronchitis as smoking can exacerbate symptoms and slow down the healing process by further irritating the bronchial tubes. - **Antibiotic treatment is not recommended in uncomplicated acute bronchitis**: This is appropriate because most cases of acute bronchitis are viral in origin, and antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other side effects.
In conclusion, while cough suppressants can be useful in specific situations, particularly for aiding sleep by controlling nighttime coughing, they are not encouraged universally in all cases of bronchitis. Their use should be judicious, balancing the need for comfort and sleep against the natural and beneficial action of coughing in clearing the bronchial passages.

NEW QUESTION # 183
Report ____ immediately if a patient has an EVD (external ventricular drain).
  • A. All of the above.
  • B. ICP.
  • C. CSF output.
  • D. Hypertension.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In patients with an external ventricular drain (EVD), monitoring and reporting intracranial pressure (ICP) is crucial. An EVD is typically used to measure ICP and to drain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to relieve pressure within the brain. Elevated ICP can indicate worsening of brain edema, hemorrhage, or other complications that could threaten the patient's life. Immediate reporting of abnormal ICP values ensures timely intervention to prevent severe brain injury or death.
Changes in CSF output should also be reported immediately. The rate of CSF drainage through an EVD can provide vital information about the current status of brain swelling or the presence of blood or infection in the CSF. Sudden increases, decreases, or cessation of CSF flow can indicate blockage, infection, or changes in brain tissue position, necessitating urgent medical attention.
Hypertension in patients with an EVD is a critical issue. Elevated blood pressure can exacerbate brain swelling and increase ICP, posing a significant risk of brain herniation. Conversely, hypotension can lead to reduced cerebral perfusion pressure and result in brain tissue ischemia. Both conditions require immediate adjustments in medical management, including the potential administration of vasoactive drugs to stabilize blood pressure.
Monitoring and immediate reporting of oxygen levels in patients with an EVD are essential. Hypoxia (low oxygen levels) can worsen brain injury by promoting further swelling and increasing ICP. Ensuring adequate oxygenation is a fundamental part of the care for patients with brain injuries and those with an EVD in place. Any deviations from normal oxygen levels should be addressed promptly to optimize brain recovery and function.
By closely monitoring these parameters-ICP, CSF output, blood pressure, and oxygen levels-and reporting any critical changes immediately, healthcare professionals can provide effective and responsive care to patients with an EVD, potentially improving outcomes in critical neurological conditions.

NEW QUESTION # 184
A 34-year-old female with multiple sclerosis (MS) is in the office. She is now under your care after relocating from another state to live with relatives who can help her. The ACNS understands that which of the following is NOT part of her management plan:
  • A. Complex treatment regimen must be coordinated with a neurologist.
  • B. Acute exacerbations should be treated with prednisone 60-80 mg/day for 1 week, taper over 2-3 weeks.
  • C. Corticosteroids are often used for maintenance.
  • D. Physical and occupational therapy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A 34-year-old female with multiple sclerosis (MS) has recently moved to be closer to relatives who can assist her with her condition. In managing her MS, it is essential to understand the roles of various treatments and interventions.
Multiple sclerosis is a chronic immune-mediated disease that affects the central nervous system, leading to various neurological symptoms. Treatment strategies aim to manage acute relapses, slow disease progression, and alleviate symptoms. A comprehensive management plan for MS typically includes medication, physical therapy, and occupational therapy, among other interventions.
**Physical and occupational therapy** are crucial components of the management plan for MS. These therapies help maintain mobility, prevent complications from immobility, and improve the quality of life through adaptive strategies. They are tailored to the individual's needs to help them manage daily activities and maintain independence for as long as possible.
**Corticosteroids, such as prednisone**, are commonly used in the treatment of MS but have a specific role. They are primarily used for managing acute exacerbations or relapses of the disease. During a relapse, corticosteroids help reduce inflammation quickly and decrease the severity of attacks. However, it is critical to note that **corticosteroids are not used as a maintenance therapy** in MS. Maintenance therapy in MS involves drugs that modify the disease course (disease-modifying therapies or DMTs), which help reduce the frequency and severity of relapses and slow the progression of disability.
**Acute exacerbations should be treated with prednisone 60-80 mg/day for about one week, followed by a taper over two to three weeks**. This regimen is effective in managing the acute phases but does not play a role in long-term management. The administration of corticosteroids for long periods would not be appropriate due to potential side effects and lack of efficacy in preventing disease progression.
A **complex treatment regimen must be coordinated with a neurologist** who specializes in MS. This coordination ensures that the patient receives comprehensive care, including the selection of appropriate disease-modifying therapies, management of symptoms, and monitoring for any side effects of treatments.
In summary, while corticosteroids are essential for treating acute exacerbations of MS, they are not suitable for maintenance therapy. Other aspects of the management plan, such as physical and occupational therapy and collaboration with a neurologist for disease-modifying treatments, are vital for the long-term care of MS patients.

NEW QUESTION # 185
How many grams of protein does a serving of meat on the ADA diet contain?
  • A. 75g.
  • B. 15g.
  • C. 7g.
  • D. 10g.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct amount of protein in a serving of meat or meat substitute on the American Diabetes Association (ADA) diet is 7 grams. This dietary recommendation is part of a structured plan intended to help manage blood sugar levels through consistent and balanced food choices.
In addition to the protein content, it is important to note that each serving should ideally contain no more than 100 calories and no more than 8 grams of fat. This helps in maintaining an overall healthy diet and aids in weight management, which is crucial for individuals managing diabetes. The guidelines are designed to ensure that meals are both nutritious and conducive to stable blood glucose levels.
The ADA diet not only focuses on the quantity of the food but also emphasizes the quality and the combination of foods. Protein servings can come from both animal and plant sources, providing flexibility and variety in meal planning. Common examples of a meat serving on this diet could include one ounce of chicken, beef, or fish, whereas a meat substitute serving might consist of tofu or a similar amount of another plant-based protein source.
This dietary approach is beneficial not only for individuals with diabetes but also for anyone seeking a balanced and health-conscious diet. By adhering to these parameters, the ADA diet aids in the overall nutritional management, which is a critical aspect of diabetes care.

NEW QUESTION # 186
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