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[General] Top ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Dumps, Reliable ITIL-4-Practitioner-R

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【General】 Top ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Dumps, Reliable ITIL-4-Practitioner-R

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:
TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.
Topic 2
  • AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.
Topic 3
  • Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q19-Q24):NEW QUESTION # 19
An organization's project and operational teams are concerned that individual releases involve some unnecessary activities and are missing some important activities. What is the BEST action for the organization to take to improve this situation?
  • A. Review current release models, create additional models where appropriate, and automate where possible
  • B. Ensure that release management key metrics are integrated with metrics relating to deployment management and change enablement
  • C. Introduce proactive communication channels for the service provider to make release management processes more efficient
  • D. Automate the release management activities together with development activities
Answer: A
Explanation:
The concern about unnecessary and missing activities in releases points to issues with the release models being used. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument advises:"To address inefficiencies in release processes, such as unnecessary or missing activities, organizations should review current release models, create additional models where appropriate to address gaps, and automate repetitive tasks to improve efficiency"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (Introduce proactive communication channels) improves stakeholder engagementbut doesn't directly address the issue of unnecessary or missing activities.
* Option B (Review current release models, create additional models, and automate) directly tackles the problem by refining the release models to eliminate unnecessary activities, add missing ones, and enhance efficiency through automation.
* Option C (Integrate metrics with deployment and change enablement) focuses on performance measurement, not process improvement.
* Option D (Automate with development activities) addresses automation but doesn't specifically tackle the issue of refining release activities.
The correct answer is B, as it directly addresses the root cause by improving release models.

NEW QUESTION # 20
A service provider is receiving poor feedback from customers about releases of updates to a software product.
A review has shown that releases are often delayed or have to be repeated due to a lack of information about their impact on business processes and on other IT systems. The service provider is reviewing the value streams involving the software releases. Which step of the value stream analysis should the service provider use to understand the required information and dependencies?
  • A. Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis
  • B. Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map
  • C. Identifying the workflow steps
  • D. Creating a 'to be' value stream map
Answer: B
Explanation:
Value stream analysis in ITIL 4 helps identify inefficiencies and dependencies in processes like release management. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map allows organizations to understand the current state, including dependencies and impacts on business processes and IT systems, which can reveal gaps in information that lead to delays or failures" (Section 4.3).
* Option A (Creating a 'to be' value stream map) focuses on designing the future state, which comes after understanding the current state.
* Option B (Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map) is the correct step to understand current impacts and dependencies, identifying the root cause of delays and repeats.
* Option C (Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis) is an initial step but doesn't directly address understanding impacts.
* Option D (Identifying the workflow steps) is part of mapping but doesn't emphasize reflection on impacts and dependencies.
The correct answer is B, as reflecting on the current value stream map helps uncover the missing information about impacts.

NEW QUESTION # 21
What automation tools should be used to help a release manager understand how the organization's services are related to one another?
  • A. Monitoring and event management tools
  • B. Work planning and prioritization tools
  • C. Enterprise architecture tools
  • D. Analysis and reporting tools
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding service relationships is critical for effective release management, especially to assess the impact of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Enterprise architecture tools help release managers understand the relationships between services, applications, and infrastructure, enabling better impact analysis and dependency mapping for releases"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Analysis and reporting tools) focuses on performance metrics, not service relationships.
* Option B (Work planning and prioritization tools) aids in scheduling, not understanding service dependencies.
* Option C (Monitoring and event management tools) is used for real-time performancetracking, not structural relationships.
* Option D (Enterprise architecture tools) is the correct choice, as these tools map out service relationships and dependencies, helping the release manager plan releases effectively.
The correct answer is D, as enterprise architecture tools are designed for this purpose.

NEW QUESTION # 22
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?
  • A. A 'push' approach
  • B. Continuous integration
  • C. A 'pull' approach
  • D. Continuous delivery
Answer: A
Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 23
An organization has a dedicated release management team that is effective in managing releases, but this team has very poor coordination with the change enablement team. What capability level of release management does this indicate?
  • A. Level 4
  • B. Level 1
  • C. Level 2
  • D. Level 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
The ITIL capability model evaluates not only the effectiveness of a practice but also its integrationwith other practices. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is effective in its own scope but may lack integration with other practices. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and effective coordination with related practices like change enablement" (Section 5.2).
* The scenario shows that the release management team is effective (meeting Level 2), but poor coordination with the change enablement team indicates a lack of integration.
* Level 1 (Ad-hoc) would mean no consistent process, which isn't the case here since the team is effective.
* Level 3 requires integration and standardization across practices, which is not met due to poor coordination.
* Level 4 is even more advanced, requiring quantitative management, which isn't applicable.
The capability level is B (Level 2), as the practice is effective but lacks the integration needed for Level
3.

NEW QUESTION # 24
......
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