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[Hardware] Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Sample, MCCQE Reliable Braindumps Questions

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【Hardware】 Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Sample, MCCQE Reliable Braindumps Questions

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q161-Q166):NEW QUESTION # 161
A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic for evaluation of hypercalcemia. She has a history of hypertension and vitamin D deficiency. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide and vitamin D supplements. Laboratory investigations are as follows:
* Calcium: 2.72 mmol/L (#)
* Phosphate: 0.9 mmol/L (#)
* Parathyroid hormone (PTH): 0.9 pmol/L (#)
* 25-hydroxy vitamin D: 80 nmol/L (normal)
Which one of the following is the best next step?
  • A. Refer for consideration of parathyroidectomy
  • B. Order 24-hour urine calcium
  • C. Switch to a different antihypertensive medication
  • D. Start calcitriol
  • E. Order serum protein electrophoresis and urine for light chains
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH, ruling out primary hyperparathyroidism. The differential includes malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, vitamin D intoxication, and medications. Given the low PTH and normal vitamin D level, malignancy (e.g., multiple myeloma) is a leading concern. Serum protein electrophoresis and urine for Bence-Jones proteins (light chains) are appropriate next steps.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Hypercalcemia":
"PTH-independent hypercalcemia should prompt investigation for malignancy. Multiple myeloma is a common cause in older adults-order SPEP and UPEP." MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-1: Calcium Disorders):
"Candidates must investigate non-PTH mediated hypercalcemia, including consideration of multiple myeloma." A (urine calcium) helps in familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia, but this is unlikely given low PTH. B (calcitriol) would worsen hypercalcemia. C is inappropriate because PTH is suppressed. D (changing HCTZ) may help, but malignancy must be ruled out first.

NEW QUESTION # 162
A 45-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of a sore left breast. It has become red and swollen. She was previously well, and her menstrual cycles are regular. She has no history of breast cancer, and she has no children. On examination, she has a red, tender, indurated area in her left breast that has only partially responded to oral antibiotics after 10 days. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
  • A. Start intravenous antibiotics.
  • B. Perform a breast biopsy.
  • C. Proceed with incision and drainage.
  • D. Change the oral antibiotic.
  • E. Start nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a non-lactating woman with a partially responsive breast mass after antibiotics, inflammatory breast cancer must be ruled out. A breast biopsy (core or excisional) is indicated to assess for malignancy. Inflammatory breast cancer may mimic mastitis but does not improve with antibiotics.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Breast Disorders:
"In non-lactating women, persistent breast inflammation should raise suspicion for inflammatory breast cancer. If symptoms persist after antibiotic therapy, proceed with imaging and biopsy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Breast Disease:
"Candidates must differentiate between mastitis and inflammatory breast cancer and initiate appropriate investigations such as biopsy when response to antibiotics is incomplete." Options A, D, and E may be appropriate for a confirmed abscess or infectious cause, but further investigation is mandatory in this scenario. NSAIDs (C) are symptomatic but do not address the diagnostic concern.

NEW QUESTION # 163
A 65-year-old woman presents to the office for follow-up regarding vaginal bleeding. Her last visit was 2 months ago. At that visit, the results of a pelvic examination and a Papanicolaou test were normal. She also had an endometrial biopsy but there was "insufficient material for diagnosis." She reports that she is still losing small amounts of blood almost every day. On history, she has been taking continuous combined hormone replacement therapy for 10 years because of vasomotor symptoms. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
  • A. Order a colposcopy.
  • B. Change hormones to a selective estrogen receptor modulator.
  • C. Organize a hysteroscopy.
  • D. Decrease the dosage of progestin.
  • E. Refer for a hysterectomy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Persistent postmenopausal bleeding requires thorough evaluation. An inadequate endometrial biopsy result does not rule out pathology. Hysteroscopy allows for direct visualization and targeted biopsy and is the gold standard when biopsy is non-diagnostic.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Abnormal Uterine Bleeding and Endometrial Cancer" Section:
"Persistent bleeding with insufficient biopsy requires further evaluation, preferably via hysteroscopy and directed biopsy. This is especially important in patients on HRT or with risk factors for endometrial pathology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics & Gynecology > 82-9: Postmenopausal Bleeding):
"Candidates must investigate abnormal bleeding in postmenopausal women with hysteroscopy when endometrial sampling is non-diagnostic." Changing hormones (A), reducing progestin (E), or performing colposcopy (C) are not appropriate without confirming the cause of bleeding.

NEW QUESTION # 164
You are treating a 78-year-old man for recent onset of diarrhea, tenesmus, and minor bleeding when he wipes.
He has a history of prostate cancer that was treated by radiotherapy. Rectal examination findings are normal.
Colonoscopy reveals a pale rectum with ulcerations and areas of mucosal hemorrhage. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this clinical presentation?
  • A. Rectal cancer
  • B. Diverticulosis
  • C. Recurrent prostate cancer
  • D. Radiation proctitis
  • E. Ulcerative colitis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Radiation proctitis is a well-known complication of pelvic radiation therapy (e.g., for prostate cancer). It presents months to years after treatment with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, and mucosal ulceration on colonoscopy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Radiation-Induced GI Injury":
"Radiation proctitis presents with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, urgency. Colonoscopy shows pale, friable mucosa, ulcerations, and telangiectasia." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gastroenterology > 47-2: GI Bleeding and Complications):
"Candidates must recognize radiation proctitis based on history of radiation and characteristic endoscopic findings." Ulcerative colitis (B) usually starts younger and is more diffuse. Diverticulosis (C) affects the left colon and causes painless bleeding. Recurrent prostate cancer (D) and rectal cancer (E) would show mass or infiltration.

NEW QUESTION # 165
During an office visit, your 14-year-old patient requests a prescription for oral contraceptives. The province where you are working does not have a statutory age of consent. Which one of the following is the best next step?
  • A. Determine her understanding of the medical issues before prescribing the pills.
  • B. Notify child protective services because of the possibility of sexual abuse.
  • C. Refuse to prescribe the pills because she is less than 18 years of age.
  • D. Give her the prescription and book a follow-up appointment.
  • E. Advise her to return with her parents so that legal consent can be obtained.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Canada, a minor may consent to medical care if the physician believes they have the capacity to understand the nature, benefits, and risks. This is known as the "mature minor doctrine." Capacity is based on understanding, not age.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Consent and Capacity" Section:
"A minor may consent to treatment if they demonstrate sufficient maturity and understanding. It is the physician's responsibility to assess capacity prior to prescribing." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-3: Consent and Confidentiality):
"Candidates must assess the patient's ability to understand and make informed decisions, regardless of age." Prescribing without assessment (B) is premature. Reporting to child services (A) is only necessary if there are signs of abuse or coercion. Parental involvement (C) is not mandatory. Refusal based on age (E) contradicts legal and ethical practice.

NEW QUESTION # 166
......
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