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【Hardware】 ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Preparation Store, Latest ITIL-4-Practiti

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:
TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.
Topic 2
  • AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.
Topic 3
  • Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q13-Q18):NEW QUESTION # 13
A service provider is conducting a capability assessment of the release management practice. It has been found that although the practice's performance is regularly reported and reviewed, most recommendations based on the reports are never implemented. What is the MAXIMUM capability level that could be given to the release management practice?
  • A. Level 5
  • B. Level 2
  • C. Level 4
  • D. Level 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ITIL capability model assesses practices based on their maturity and ability to improve. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument outlines the capability levels:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is planned and tracked, with performance regularly reported. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and the ability to improve based on feedback. If recommendations from performance reviews are not implemented, the practice cannot achieve Level 3"(Section 5.2).
* The scenario indicates that performance is reported and reviewed (meeting Level 2 requirements), but recommendations are not implemented, meaning there's no improvement or standardization beyond basic management.
* Level 3 requires consistent improvement and standardization, which is not met due to the lack of implementation.
* Levels 4 (Quantitatively Managed) and 5 (Optimizing) require even higher maturity, including data- driven improvements and continuous optimization, which are not applicable here.
The maximum capability level is A (Level 2), as the practice is managed but not improving.

NEW QUESTION # 14
A service owner is initiating the release planning and coordination process for a complex project. What is an example of the FIRST activity that the service owner should undertake in this instance?
  • A. Select a release model that fits with the types of changes to be included in the release
  • B. Check that an automated notification has been sent to stakeholders
  • C. Test the service components and take remedial action as necessary
  • D. Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate for the particular release under consideration
Answer: A
Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process begins with defining the approach for the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"The first step in release planning and coordination is to select an appropriate release model that fits the types of changes to be included in the release. This ensures that the release approach aligns with the nature and complexity of the changes"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Test the service components) is part of the release execution or testing phase, not the first step in planning.
* Option B (Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate) is a subsequent step after selecting the model, to confirm procedural alignment.
* Option C (Select a release model) is the first activity, as it sets the foundation for how the release will be structured and managed, especially for a complex project.
* Option D (Check that an automated notification has been sent) occurs later, during the communication phase of the release process.
The correct answer is C, as selecting the release model is the initial step in release planning.

NEW QUESTION # 15
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?
  • A. Continuous delivery
  • B. Continuous integration
  • C. A 'push' approach
  • D. A 'pull' approach
Answer: C
Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 16
An organization has a dedicated release management team that is effective in managing releases, but this team has very poor coordination with the change enablement team. What capability level of release management does this indicate?
  • A. Level 2
  • B. Level 4
  • C. Level 1
  • D. Level 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ITIL capability model evaluates not only the effectiveness of a practice but also its integrationwith other practices. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is effective in its own scope but may lack integration with other practices. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and effective coordination with related practices like change enablement" (Section 5.2).
* The scenario shows that the release management team is effective (meeting Level 2), but poor coordination with the change enablement team indicates a lack of integration.
* Level 1 (Ad-hoc) would mean no consistent process, which isn't the case here since the team is effective.
* Level 3 requires integration and standardization across practices, which is not met due to poor coordination.
* Level 4 is even more advanced, requiring quantitative management, which isn't applicable.
The capability level is B (Level 2), as the practice is effective but lacks the integration needed for Level
3.

NEW QUESTION # 17
Which activity of the 'release model development and improvement' process is used to standardize the preparation of release instances?
  • A. Release execution
  • B. Product architecture and service relationship analysis
  • C. Release model review and development
  • D. Release management approach review and development
Answer: C
Explanation:
The release model development and improvement process aims to create and refine standardizedmodels for releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains:"Release model review and development involves defining and standardizing the structure, contents, and schedule of releases to ensure consistency in the preparation of release instances"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (Release management approach review and development) focuses on the overall practice approach, not specifically the preparation of release instances.
* Option B (Release model review and development) directly addresses standardizing the preparation of release instances by defining repeatable models.
* Option C (Product architecture and service relationship analysis) is a supporting activity to understand dependencies, not to standardize release preparation.
* Option D (Release execution) is the process of deploying a release, not developing or standardizing models.
The correct answer is B, as it directly relates to standardizing release preparation through model development.

NEW QUESTION # 18
......
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