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[Hardware] 100% Pass-Rate CCRN-Adult Testking Learning Materials Help You to Get Acquainted

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【Hardware】 100% Pass-Rate CCRN-Adult Testking Learning Materials Help You to Get Acquainted

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AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Syllabus Topics:
TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • In musculoskeletal, neurological, and psychosocial areas, the syllabus includes managing trauma, neurological disorders, and behavioral health issues. This emphasizes the holistic approach required in critical care settings. Lastly, multisystem complications such as sepsis and shock states are included to assess the ability to manage life-threatening conditions that affect multiple organ systems.
Topic 2
  • PROFESSIONAL CARING & ETHICAL PRACTICE: This section assesses the skills of Clinical Nurse Leaders in professional caring and ethical practice. It covers advocacy and moral agency, highlighting the importance of representing patients' interests in healthcare decisions. The section also addresses caring practices that promote patient-centered care and response to diversity, ensuring that care is tailored to individual needs.
Topic 4
  • Facilitation of learning is emphasized, indicating the role of nurses in educating patients and families about health management. Collaboration is another key component, focusing on teamwork within healthcare settings to improve patient outcomes. Systems thinking is included to encourage understanding of how different components of healthcare interact. Finally, clinical inquiry is highlighted as a means to foster evidence-based practice and continuous improvement in patient care.

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AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q588-Q593):NEW QUESTION # 588
Patients with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding are at GREATEST risk of developing which of the following?
  • A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  • B. Hypovolemic shock
  • C. Cardiogenic shock
  • D. Distributive shock
Answer: B
Explanation:
Life-threatening GI bleeding originates most commonly in the upper GI tract, and requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Patients presenting with sudden blood loss are at risk for decreased tissue perfusion and oxygen-carrying capacity associated with hypovolemic shock.
The fundamental goal of initial treatment of upper GI bleeding is to assess the hemodynamic consequences of the blood loss, identify the bleeding site, and control/stop the bleeding. If blood loss is greater than 25% of blood volume, hemodynamic instability will ensue. The patient will need at least two large-bore IV catheters for fluid resuscitation with crystalloid solutions and blood products, if indicated.

NEW QUESTION # 589
An ICU patient is experiencing low cardiac output syndrome. Which of the following vasopressors is indicated when the desired effect is vasoconstriction without tachycardia?
  • A. Dopamine (Intropin)
  • B. Phenylephrine (Neosynephrine)
  • C. Epinephrine
  • D. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine all have a combination of alpha and beta stimulation, producing both vasoconstriction and increased cardiac stimulation (inotropic and chronotropic responses). This makes the heart beat both stronger and faster.
Phenylephrine is only an alpha stimulant, so there is less direct effect on the heart; it is a pure vasoconstrictor without direct cardiac effect and is useful when the desired effect is vasoconstriction without increased heart rate.

NEW QUESTION # 590
A patient's IV with norepinephrine (Levophed) infusing is red, swollen, and the IV pump is alarming. A nurse should anticipate
  • A. lowering the extremity below heart level.
  • B. providing a warm compress.
  • C. removing the IV immediately.
  • D. administering phentolamine (Regitine).
Answer: D
Explanation:
Phentolamine (Regitine) is the antidote for norepinephrine extravasation, which is the leakage of the vasopressor from the vein into the surrounding tissue. Phentolamine reverses the vasoconstriction and ischemia caused by norepinephrine by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors. Phentolamine should be administered intradermally around the site of extravasation as soon as possible, and the infusion should be stopped but the IV catheter should not be removed until some of the norepinephrine is aspirated. A warm compress may worsen the tissue damage by increasing the absorption of norepinephrine, and lowering the extremity may increase the edema and pain. Removing the IV immediately may prevent the aspiration of norepinephrine and the administration of phentolamine.
References:
* Episode 240: What to do with norepinephrine extravasation: This article explains the steps to take when norepinephrine extravasates, including the use of phentolamine, and the reasons to avoid cold compress, lowering the extremity, and removing the IV.
* What are current recommendations for treatment of drug extravasation?: This article summarizes the latest recommendations for treatment of extravasation, and lists phentolamine as the immediate topical therapy for norepinephrine extravasation.

NEW QUESTION # 591
Which of the following is the federal law that requires healthcare institutions receiving Medicare or Medicaid funds to inform patients of their legal rights to make healthcare decisions and execute advance directives?
  • A. The Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA)
  • B. Mental Health Systems Act (MHSA)
  • C. National Mental Health Act (NMHA)
  • D. Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) was passed by the United States Congress in 1990 as an amendment to the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990. Effective on December 1, 1991, this legislation required many hospitals, nursing homes, home health agencies, hospice providers, Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs), and other healthcare institutions receiving Medicare or Medicaid funds to inform patients of their legal rights to make healthcare decisions and execute advance directives. Its purpose is to preserve and protect the rights of adult patients to make choices regarding their medical care. It requires institutions to inform individuals of relevant state laws surrounding the preparation and execution of advance directives.

NEW QUESTION # 592
The nurse is caring for a patient in shock who presents as restless and agitated, has a slightly low blood pressure, is tachycardic, tachypneic, and has a weak and thready peripheral pulse upon palpation.
What stage of shock is this patient MOST LIKELY in?
  • A. Initial
  • B. Refractory
  • C. Compensatory
  • D. Progressive
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient is in the compensatory stage of shock; this stage is composed of numerous physiological events that represent the body's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output and restore adequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the tissues. You would expect the patient to be restless, agitated, and confused. Blood pressure would be normal or slightly low, heart rate would be increased, respiratory rate would be increased, peripheral pulses would be weak and thready, and the skin would be cool and clammy.
In the initial stage of shock, there are no obvious clinical signs and symptoms, though initial cellular changes occur from the decrease in oxygen delivery to the tissue. In the progressive stage, the patient is unresponsive to verbal stimuli, has inadequate blood pressure and pulse, and shallow respirations; end- organ failure due to cellular damage from prolonged compensatory changes is imminent. The refractory stage is imminent death due to irreversible damage.

NEW QUESTION # 593
......
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