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[General] Nursing ACNS Reliable Exam Simulations | ACNS Latest Exam Dumps

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【General】 Nursing ACNS Reliable Exam Simulations | ACNS Latest Exam Dumps

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Nursing ANCC Adult Health Clinical Nurse Specialist Certification (ACNS) Sample Questions (Q199-Q204):NEW QUESTION # 199
The CNS has a patient who has suffered a second degree burn on his arm. Which of the following actions would the CNS be least likely to take?
  • A. Use normal saline to clean the broken skin.
  • B. Use water with mild soap to clean the broken skin.
  • C. Rupture the blisters.
  • D. Treat with silver sulfadiazine cream.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the scenario presented, the appropriate clinical response to a second-degree burn involves several key steps, but notably, it does not include rupturing the blisters. This specific action is contraindicated because intact blisters serve as a natural barrier against infection and further trauma to the underlying skin tissues. Rupturing blisters can increase the risk of infection and delay the healing process.
In the treatment of second-degree burns, the initial step often involves gently cleaning the affected area. This can be done using lukewarm water and mild soap, or more preferably, with a sterile saline solution. These methods help to remove contaminants without further irritating or damaging the skin. It is crucial to handle the burned skin delicately to avoid breaking any blisters that have formed.
Following cleansing, topical application of an antimicrobial cream such as silver sulfadiazine can be applied. Silver sulfadiazine is widely used in burn care due to its broad-spectrum antimicrobial properties, which help prevent infection while the skin heals. This cream is typically applied to the entire burn area, carefully avoiding disrupting any blisters.
Thus, the clinical steps taken by a CNS (Clinical Nurse Specialist) or any healthcare provider in managing a second-degree burn are directed towards promoting healing, preventing infection, and maintaining the integrity of the skin as much as possible. Rupturing blisters does not align with these objectives and is therefore the action a CNS would be least likely to take. This approach is consistent with current best practices in burn treatment and wound care management.

NEW QUESTION # 200
Which of the following is true concerning state boards of nursing?
  • A. State boards of nursing have the same requirements, limits, and competence guidelines, and do not vary state to state.
  • B. none of the above
  • C. State boards of nursing are only concerned with initial licensing of an ACCRN.
  • D. State boards of nursing ensure that the licensees meet minimum competency levels throughout their careers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
State boards of nursing play a crucial role in the regulation and oversight of nursing professionals within their respective states. Their primary function is to ensure that nurses meet and maintain minimum competency levels required for safe and effective practice throughout their careers. This responsibility extends beyond the initial licensing of nurses and involves continuous oversight and regulation to safeguard public health.
The correct answer to the question is that state boards of nursing ensure that the licensees meet minimum competency levels throughout their careers. This statement is accurate as the boards are involved in various activities such as issuing licenses, conducting examinations, and enforcing nursing practice standards. They also play a significant role in the ongoing education and competence assessment of nurses to ensure that they remain capable of providing quality care as medical practices and technologies evolve.
Furthermore, state boards of nursing are responsible for disciplinary actions against nurses who fail to adhere to the established standards of practice. This includes investigating complaints, conducting hearings, and imposing sanctions ranging from reprimands to revocation of licenses, which are essential aspects of maintaining professional integrity and public trust in the healthcare system.
It is important to note that while the core functions of state boards of nursing are similar, the specific regulations, guidelines, and limits can vary from one state to another. Each state board operates under its state's laws and may have unique requirements for licensure, continuing education, and practice standards. This variability necessitates that nursing professionals be knowledgeable about the specific regulations and requirements in the states where they are licensed and practice.
In summary, state boards of nursing are vital regulatory entities that ensure nurses maintain the minimum competency levels necessary to safely and effectively care for patients throughout their professional careers. They achieve this through a combination of licensure, continuous education, monitoring, and disciplinary measures, tailored to the specific needs and legal frameworks of their respective states.

NEW QUESTION # 201
A patient has no functional problems. There is, however, potential for problems later. What type of diagnosis is appropriate?
  • A. Wellness.
  • B. Risk.
  • C. None.
  • D. Actual.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the medical field, diagnoses are typically categorized to best describe and manage a patient's current and potential health conditions. When a patient does not currently exhibit any functional problems but has factors that could lead to health issues in the future, the appropriate type of diagnosis is a "Risk Diagnosis."
**Risk Diagnosis** - This type of diagnosis is used when a patient's medical assessment reveals potential for health problems that could develop if certain interventions are not implemented. Unlike an "Actual Diagnosis," which is based on evident symptoms or issues, a risk diagnosis anticipates problems before they manifest based on current risk factors. These factors could be genetic, environmental, lifestyle-related, or related to other pre-existing conditions that might predispose the individual to developing specific health issues.
For instance, consider a patient with a strong family history of diabetes but who currently shows no symptoms of the disease. Although the patient is presently healthy, the genetic predisposition indicates a higher risk of developing diabetes in the future. In such cases, a healthcare provider might use a risk diagnosis to start preventive measures such as advising lifestyle changes, monitoring blood sugar levels, or educating the patient about managing potential symptoms.
**Significance of Risk Diagnosis** - The primary purpose of a risk diagnosis is preventive. It serves to identify and mitigate possible future complications early on. By addressing these risks proactively, healthcare providers can significantly reduce the likelihood of these potential issues becoming actual health problems. This proactive approach not only contributes to better long-term health outcomes for the patient but can also decrease potential healthcare costs associated with treating advanced conditions.
**Implementation** - Implementing a risk diagnosis involves a detailed evaluation of the patient's medical history, family history, lifestyle, and any other factors that might contribute to future health problems. Based on this assessment, healthcare providers develop a management plan that often includes regular monitoring, health education, and preventive measures tailored to the specific risks identified.
To sum up, a risk diagnosis is crucial for patients who are currently symptom-free but have identified factors that could potentially lead to health issues. It is a proactive medical approach focused on prevention, helping to ensure that potential health problems are managed before they develop into significant concerns.

NEW QUESTION # 202
A 52-year old female is in the office with a new-onset of reflux esophagitis. You are assessing her and asking pertinent questions. What do you expect to find with her that would support this diagnosis?
  • A. recent initiation of estrogen-progestin hormonal therapy
  • B. active H. pylori infection
  • C. recent weight loss and fatigue
  • D. a report of melena
Answer: A
Explanation:
When assessing a 52-year-old female patient presenting with new-onset reflux esophagitis, certain findings in her medical history and symptoms can support the diagnosis. Here are the pertinent factors to consider:
**Recent Initiation of Estrogen-Progestin Hormonal Therapy**: This is a significant factor to explore. Medications can impact the function of the gastrointestinal system, particularly the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). The LES is a critical barrier preventing the backflow of stomach contents, including acid, into the esophagus. Estrogen and progestin, components of many hormonal therapies, are known to potentially decrease LES pressure. This reduction in pressure can lead to or exacerbate gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), presenting as reflux esophagitis. Asking about the timing of hormonal therapy initiation and correlating it with the onset of reflux symptoms can provide valuable diagnostic insight.
**Symptoms Consistent with Reflux Esophagitis**: The patient may report classic symptoms such as heartburn, regurgitation of food or sour liquid, and chest pain. Additionally, symptoms like difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), a sensation of a lump in the throat, and chronic cough might also be present. These symptoms often worsen after eating, when lying down, or bending over.
**Lifestyle and Dietary Factors**: Inquiring about recent changes in diet, alcohol consumption, smoking habits, and body weight can be helpful. Increased intake of fatty foods, alcohol, caffeine, and smoking are known risk factors for GERD. Obesity also contributes to increased abdominal pressure, which can promote the reflux of acid into the esophagus.
**Active H. pylori Infection**: While Helicobacter pylori infection is primarily associated with gastritis and peptic ulcer disease, it can indirectly influence the development of reflux esophagitis. The infection can lead to changes in the stomach lining and potentially affect acid production and gastric emptying, which might exacerbate reflux symptoms.
**Exclusion of Other Causes**: It is also crucial to rule out other potential causes of the patient's symptoms. For instance, a report of melena (black, tarry stools) might suggest gastrointestinal bleeding, which requires immediate attention and a different diagnostic pathway. Similarly, symptoms like recent weight loss and fatigue might necessitate a broader investigation to rule out other systemic conditions. By exploring these aspects during the patient interview and examination, a more comprehensive understanding of the potential cause of the reflux esophagitis can be achieved, guiding appropriate management and treatment strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 203
Of the following, which is an example of an impaired absorption reason contributing to iron deficiency?
  • A. Goodpasture syndrome.
  • B. Epistaxis.
  • C. Multiple gestation.
  • D. Gastrectomy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Of the various conditions listed, gastrectomy is uniquely associated with impaired absorption of iron, contributing to iron deficiency. Gastrectomy, the surgical removal of all or part of the stomach, can significantly affect the body's ability to absorb nutrients, including iron. This is because the stomach plays a crucial role in the initial stages of iron absorption. During digestion, stomach acids help convert dietary iron into a form that is more easily absorbed in the intestines. With reduced stomach capacity or altered stomach function following gastrectomy, there is a decreased secretion of gastric acid, which is essential for iron absorption.
In contrast, the other conditions mentioned-Goodpasture syndrome, multiple gestation, and epistaxis-do not primarily involve impaired nutrient absorption. Goodpasture syndrome is an autoimmune disorder affecting the lungs and kidneys, leading to bleeding in the lungs and kidney dysfunction, but it does not directly impair gastrointestinal nutrient absorption. Multiple gestation increases the demand for iron due to the needs of more than one fetus, potentially leading to deficiency if the increased demand is not met through diet or supplements. However, it does not inherently affect the absorption processes in the digestive tract. Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeding, can cause iron deficiency through chronic blood loss, but again, it does not impact the absorption of iron in the gastrointestinal system.
Therefore, among the options provided, gastrectomy is the correct answer as it directly relates to an impaired absorption mechanism contributing to iron deficiency. This understanding highlights the importance of monitoring and potentially supplementing iron in patients who have undergone this surgical procedure to prevent or address iron deficiency anemia.

NEW QUESTION # 204
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