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AAPC CPC Exam dumps 2026
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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:| Topic | Details | | Topic 1 | - The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
| | Topic 2 | - Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
| | Topic 3 | - Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
| | Topic 4 | - Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
| | Topic 5 | - Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
| | Topic 6 | - Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
| | Topic 7 | - Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
| | Topic 8 | - Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
- M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
- exam components per current CMS guidelines.
| | Topic 9 | - Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.
| | Topic 10 | - Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
| | Topic 11 | - Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
| | Topic 12 | - Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
- inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
| | Topic 13 | - Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
| | Topic 14 | - Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
| | Topic 15 | - Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
| | Topic 16 | - Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
| | Topic 17 | - Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
| | Topic 18 | - Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
| | Topic 19 | - Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q89-Q94):NEW QUESTION # 89
The outermost protective layer of skin is called the:
- A. Dermis
- B. Subcutaneous tissue
- C. Hypodermis
- D. Epidermis
Answer: D
Explanation:
The outermost protective layer of the skin is called the epidermis. It serves as a barrier to protect the body against environmental elements, pathogens, and helps to retain moisture. The epidermis itself is composed of several sub-layers, with the stratum corneum being the outermost layer.
ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue (L00-L99).
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which entity offers compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for a provider practice?
- A. Office for Civil Rights (OCR)
- B. Office of Inspector General (OIG)
- C. American Medical Association (AMA)
- D. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Office of Inspector General (OIG) provides compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for provider practices. This guidance is intended to help healthcare providers develop effective internal controls to monitor adherence to applicable statutes, regulations, and program requirements of Federal healthcare programs. The OIG issues various compliance guidelines and resources to assist organizations in establishing comprehensive compliance programs to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse.
OIG Compliance Program Guidance, AMA's CPT Professional Edition, and healthcare compliance resources.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Patient is admitted in observation care on 12/2/20XX in the morning for acute asthma exacerbation. The ED physician requires the patient to stay overnight. Next day, 12/3/20XX the patient is discharged from observation care in the afternoon. Patient's total stay in observation was 16 hours.
What E/M categories and code ranges are appropriate to report?
- A. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-
99236) and Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care (99231-99233) - B. Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99221-99223) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239)
- C. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-
99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239) - D. Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99221-99223) and Subsequent Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99231-99233)
Answer: C
Explanation:
1. E/M Code Category Selection:
The patient was placed in observation care on 12/2/20XX for an acute asthma exacerbation and stayed in observation for a total of 16 hours, with discharge occurring on 12/3/20XX.
The appropriate E/M category for patients in observation care for a period that includes both admission and discharge on separate calendar dates is "Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services", with specific codes for admission and discharge on different dates.
2. Code Range and Specific Codes:
Code Range 99234-99236 applies to cases where observation care includes both admission and discharge, particularly when they occur on different calendar days and the total duration of care is under 24 hours.
For discharge on the subsequent day, 99238-99239 (Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services) applies, depending on the time spent on discharge.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Option B and Option D include Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99221-99223), which are typically used for admissions to inpatient care rather than for observation care scenarios as presented here.
Option C incorrectly combines Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99231-99233), which are used for follow-up days rather than discharge services.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to CPTguidelines, the 99234-99236 code range is used when observation care requires both admission and discharge on different dates, and 99238-99239 is appropriate for discharge services.
Therefore, the correct answer is A. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239).
NEW QUESTION # 92
The pulmonologist performs a bronchoscopy with fluoroscopic guidance. The scope is introduced into the right nostril and advanced to the vocal cords and into the trachea. The scope is advanced to the right upper lobe and a lung nodule is noted. An endobronchial biopsy is performed.
What CPT code is reported for the procedure?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 93
A woman with vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN II) undergoes a partial vulvectomy (<80%) with removal of skin and deep subcutaneous tissue.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 56625, N90.1
- B. 56630, N90.1
- C. 56620, N90.3
- D. 56633, D07.1
Answer: D
Explanation:
56633 = Radical partial vulvectomy
Deep subcutaneous tissue involvement = radical, not simple
VIN II is coded as D07.1 (carcinoma in situ of vulva) per ICD-10-CM guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 94
......
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