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[Hardware] New Launch Nursing AANP-FNP Exam Questions Are Out: Download And Prepare

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【Hardware】 New Launch Nursing AANP-FNP Exam Questions Are Out: Download And Prepare

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Nursing AANP Family Nurse Practitioner (AANP-FNP) Sample Questions (Q70-Q75):NEW QUESTION # 70
You have a 35-year-old female patient who is complaining of wrist pain. She is an administrative assistant who does a great deal of computer work in her job. You will test her for carpal tunnel syndrome. When you tap at the volar surface of the wrist you are performing which of the following tests?
  • A. carpal compression maneuver
  • B. Phalen's maneuver
  • C. Tinel's sign
  • D. McMurray's test
Answer: C
Explanation:
When assessing a 35-year-old female patient who is an administrative assistant and complains of wrist pain, it is prudent to test for carpal tunnel syndrome given her extensive use of computers at work. Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve as it travels through the carpal tunnel in the wrist. Symptoms often include pain, numbness, and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers.
One of the clinical tests used to diagnose CTS is Tinel's sign. This test involves gently tapping (percussing) over the volar (palm side) surface of the wrist, directly over the course of the median nerve. If the tapping elicits tingling or a "pins and needles" sensation in the distribution of the median nerve through the fingers, the test is considered positive.
Tinel's sign is a useful clinical tool because it is simple to perform and does not require any specialized equipment. The sensitivity and specificity of Tinel's sign can vary, but generally, it is reported to have around a 50% accuracy rate. This means that the test is not definitive on its own but is helpful when used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools and clinical assessments.
It is important to differentiate Tinel's sign from other tests used for similar purposes. For example, Phalen's maneuver is another test for CTS that involves flexing the patient's wrists maximally and holding this position to see if it elicits symptoms. The carpal compression test involves applying direct pressure over the carpal tunnel and observing for symptoms. McMurray's test, on the other hand, is used to assess for meniscal tears in the knee, which is unrelated to wrist pathology.
Therefore, when you perform a tap at the volar surface of the wrist on a patient with suspected CTS, you are conducting Tinel's sign. Positive findings in Tinel's test, especially when corroborated with other tests and patient history, can support the diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome. This is vital for guiding further management and treatment strategies to alleviate the patient's symptoms and prevent further nerve damage.

NEW QUESTION # 71
Mr. Garcia comes to the clinic and tells the FNP that he has lumps under his arms that have started to drain pus. These lumps are red and painful. The FNP is most likely to diagnose which of the following?
  • A. herpes zoster
  • B. hidradenitis suppurativa
  • C. axillary herpes
  • D. psoriasis
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the symptoms described by Mr. Garcia, the Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) would likely diagnose him with hidradenitis suppurativa. This condition is characterized by the presence of painful, red lumps under the skin, such as in the armpits or groin, that can eventually start to drain pus.
Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic skin condition involving the inflammation and infection of the sweat glands, especially those located in the axillary (underarm) and inguinal (groin) regions. It is not caused by poor hygiene but is instead associated with follicular occlusion, which leads to the trapping of sweat, bacteria, and debris in the gland. This causes an inflammatory response, resulting in the painful lumps and abscesses seen in this condition.
The lumps are typically recurrent and can vary in severity. Over time, they can lead to the development of sinus tracts and scarring. The exact cause of hidradenitis suppurativa is not well understood but is believed to be influenced by genetic factors, hormonal changes, and immune system issues.
Contrary to the explanation provided, hidradenitis suppurativa is not primarily a bacterial infection but can become secondarily infected with bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus. Treatment often involves antibiotics to control any secondary infection, along with other medications to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, surgical intervention may be necessary to remove affected tissue.
Culture and sensitivity (C&S) tests of the purulent discharge can help in identifying any secondary bacterial infection and determining the most effective antibiotics to use in treatment. Managing hidradenitis suppurativa requires a comprehensive approach that may also include lifestyle changes, such as weight management and smoking cessation, which can help reduce flare-ups.
It is important for patients with hidradenitis suppurativa to receive a correct diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Regular follow-up with healthcare providers is crucial to effectively manage this chronic and often distressing condition.

NEW QUESTION # 72
our patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. He has been taking carbidopa and levodopa orally for 10 days and is concerned that it is not helping to control his symptoms. What would be the appropriate response to his concern?
  • A. Tell the patient that it takes 1 to 2 months before the medication is effective in controlling symptoms.
  • B. Immediately notify his health care provider that the medication has not been effective.
  • C. Make sure that the patient is taking the medication properly.
  • D. Ask the patient if he is adhering to the recommended diet.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Parkinson's disease is a chronic and progressive neurological disorder that primarily affects motor function due to the loss of dopamine-producing brain cells. The medications carbidopa and levodopa are commonly prescribed to manage the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Levodopa is a precursor of dopamine, which means it can be converted into dopamine in the brain, thus supplementing the decreased levels of this neurotransmitter. Carbidopa is combined with levodopa to prevent the early conversion of levodopa to dopamine outside the brain, which enhances its effectiveness and reduces side effects.
When a patient starts taking carbidopa and levodopa, it's essential to understand that the response to this treatment doesn't occur immediately. Initially, the body may need time to adjust to the medication, and the brain's remaining dopamine-producing cells may take time to respond to the increased availability of levodopa. This adjustment period can vary significantly among individuals. Typically, it can take anywhere from 1 to 2 months to observe notable improvements in the symptoms. In some cases, it might even require up to 6 months for the full effects of the medication to manifest.
Given that your patient has only been on carbidopa and levodopa for 10 days, it is quite early to expect significant changes in symptoms. It is essential to manage the patient's expectations and reassure them that this timeline is normal. During this period, the healthcare provider should monitor the patient's progress and make any necessary adjustments to the dosage. Additionally, ensuring that the patient adheres to the medication schedule and follows any dietary recommendations can also influence the effectiveness of the treatment.
Therefore, the appropriate response to your patient's concern about the medication not helping yet would be to reassure him that it typically takes 1 to 2 months, and sometimes longer, to see improvements. Encourage him to continue taking the medication as prescribed and to keep a record of his symptoms to discuss during follow-up visits. This ongoing monitoring and communication with the healthcare provider are crucial for adjusting treatment plans and managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease effectively.

NEW QUESTION # 73
What is the lifetime risk to the average American man of having latent prostate cancer?
  • A. 10%
  • B. 67%
  • C. 40%
  • D. 3%
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is 40%. This means that 40% of American men are estimated to develop latent prostate cancer during their lifetimes. Latent prostate cancer refers to cancer that is present in the prostate gland but has not yet caused any symptoms or signs detectable by current medical exams and technologies. It is often found incidentally during autopsies or other medical procedures that are not specifically aimed at detecting prostate cancer.
Latent prostate cancer, although it exists in the body, might never progress to a more severe or clinically significant stage. Therefore, although 40% of men might have this form of cancer, only a fraction of them will experience health problems or require treatment. Specifically, the lifetime risk of developing clinically significant prostate cancer, which requires intervention due to symptoms or potential for health deterioration, is about 10%. This reflects the disparity between having the disease and the disease causing issues that necessitate medical attention.
Furthermore, the risk of dying from prostate cancer is approximately 3%. This statistic highlights the effectiveness of current diagnostic and treatment strategies which can manage the disease in a way that minimizes mortality. It is also indicative of the nature of many prostate cancers, which can be slow-growing and less aggressive compared to other types of cancer.
These statistics emphasize the importance of regular medical check-ups and screenings, such as prostate-specific antigen (PSA) tests, which can help in early detection and management of prostate cancer. Early detection significantly increases the chances of successful treatment and management of prostate cancer, potentially reducing the progression from latent to more aggressive forms of the disease.

NEW QUESTION # 74
You have an older patient who has been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). At what stage of the disease would you consider renal replacement therapy?
  • A. stage 4
  • B. stage 2
  • C. stage 1
  • D. stage 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is categorized into five stages based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), a measure of kidney function. These stages help in determining the severity of kidney damage and guide treatment decisions. Stage 4 CKD is characterized by a severe decrease in GFR (15-29 ml/min/1.73 m²). At this stage, the kidneys have lost nearly all their ability to do their job effectively, which is crucial for filtering waste and excess fluid from the blood.
Renal replacement therapy (RRT), which includes dialysis or kidney transplantation, becomes a critical consideration in stage 4 CKD. Dialysis performs the function of the kidneys by filtering waste products and excess sodium and fluid from the blood when the kidneys can no longer do so efficiently. This intervention is vital to prevent the accumulation of toxins and fluid in the body, which can be life-threatening.
The decision to initiate renal replacement therapy is usually made based on several factors, including the patient's symptoms, level of kidney function, overall health, and quality of life. Common symptoms that may prompt the initiation of dialysis in stage 4 include severe fatigue, difficulty breathing, excessive fluid retention, and elevated potassium levels, which can be dangerous.
Consulting with a nephrologist, a specialist in kidney care, is essential when considering renal replacement therapy. The nephrologist will evaluate the progression of kidney disease, discuss the different modalities of dialysis (such as hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis), or assess the suitability for a kidney transplant. This consultation also provides an opportunity to address any concerns the patient might have regarding the impact of RRT on their daily life and long-term health.
It is important to note that not all patients in stage 4 CKD will require immediate renal replacement therapy. Some patients may progress to end-stage renal disease (stage 5) more slowly and might not need dialysis for months or even years. Regular monitoring and early nephrological consultation are therefore crucial to optimize the timing of dialysis initiation and to prepare both the patient and their family for the changes that lie ahead.

NEW QUESTION # 75
......
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