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[General] Simulation ITIL-4-Specialist-Monitor-Support-Fulfil Questions | New ITIL-4-Speci

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【General】 Simulation ITIL-4-Specialist-Monitor-Support-Fulfil Questions | New ITIL-4-Speci

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Specialist-Monitor-Support-Fulfil Exam Syllabus Topics:
TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Problem Management: This section of the exam evaluates the skills of IT service managers and analysts, addressing both anticipatory and responsive facets of problem management.
Topic 2
  • Monitor and Event Management: This section of the exam assesses the competencies of IT operations managers and service desk staff, focusing on the fundamentals and applications of IT service monitoring and event handling. It examines the implementation of robust monitoring systems.
Topic 3
  • Service Request Management: This section of the exam appraises the abilities of IT fulfillment teams to focus on the streamlined processing of service requests. It explores creating and administering service request catalogs and tactics to enhance user satisfaction.
Topic 4
  • Incident Management: This section of the exam gauges the proficiency of incident managers and support personnel, encompassing the entire lifecycle of incident management from initial detection to final resolution.
Topic 5
  • Introduction to Monitor, Support, Fulfil: This section of the exam evaluates the capabilities of IT service management experts and explores the core concepts of Monitor, Support, and Fulfil value chain activities in the ITIL 4 framework.

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Specialist: Monitor, Support, Fulfil Exam Sample Questions (Q130-Q135):NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following is the BEST description of practice capability level 3?
  • A. The practice is continually improving organizational capabilities associated with its purpose
  • B. The practice is well defined and achieves its purpose in an organized way
  • C. The practice systematically achieves its purpose through a basic set of activities
  • D. The practice is performed as initial or intuitive
Answer: A
Explanation:
In ITIL 4, practice capability levels are tied to the maturity of how a practice achieves its purpose. The question refers to "practice capability level 3." To understand this, let's explore the context of capability levels.
Level 1: Initial or Intuitive: This is the most basic level, where a practice is typically ad-hoc and not standardized. It operates on an informal basis and lacks systematic control. This description aligns with Option A ("The practice is performed as initial or intuitive").
Level 2: Basic Set of Activities: At this level, the practice systematically starts achieving its intended purpose but often with minimal documentation or governance. It includes a basic but incomplete set of activities. This correlates with Option B ("The practice systematically achieves its purpose through a basic set of activities").
Level 3: Well Defined and Organized: A practice at this level is well-defined and operates in a more organized way. It ensures that processes and standards are followed consistently. However, this is not the highest level of capability, and the practice may still lack continuous improvement mechanisms. This matches Option C ("The practice is well defined and achieves its purpose in an organized way").
Level 4: Continual Improvement: This is the highest capability level, where the practice not only achieves its purpose but also incorporates mechanisms for continuous improvement. It evolves to improve the organizational capabilities related to its purpose. This aligns with Option D ("The practice is continually improving organizational capabilities associated with its purpose"). At this level, the practice is embedded into the culture of continuous learning and improvement, which is crucial for maintaining organizational effectiveness in the long term.
The correct answer, Option D, represents the highest level of practice maturity, emphasizing continual improvement. This level ensures that the practice is not static but evolves by improving the capabilities needed to fulfill its purpose.

NEW QUESTION # 131
Which activity of the 'user query handling' process will result in the service desk agent resolving the query at first line?
  • A. Informal ion packaging
  • B. Acknowledge and record the user query
  • C. Validate the user query
  • D. Triage the user query and inmate the appropriate activities
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the user query handling process, triage is the activity where the service desk agent assesses the query to determine the necessary action. When the query is simple and can be resolved immediately, the agent resolves it at the first line. Triage is critical because it helps to identify which queries can be handled directly and which need to be escalated to more specialized teams.
Acknowledging and recording the query is an important step but does not lead directly to resolution.
Information packaging typically refers to preparing information for the user, often following resolution.
Validating ensures the query is correctly understood, but resolution occurs during triage when the appropriate activities are initiated.

NEW QUESTION # 132
A service management team has understood the benefits of value streams and has already mapped the current incident management value stream. What should be the NEXT step for the service management team to take?
  • A. Proceed with major changes to the incident management value stream
  • B. Start eliminating work not connected to the incident management value stream
  • C. Analyse the value stream map to identify waste
  • D. Adjust the incident management value stream to best practice
Answer: C
Explanation:
In ITIL 4, after mapping a value stream, the next logical step is to analyze the value stream map to identify waste. This analysis helps the service management team to pinpoint inefficiencies, bottlenecks, and redundant activities in the incident management process. By identifying and addressing these areas of waste, the team can improve the overall performance and flow of the value stream.

NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following is a correct statement about active monitoring in the context of the monitoring and event management practice?
  • A. Active monitoring takes place only when an event occurs
  • B. Active monitoring takes place when a defined set of conditions have been met
  • C. In active monitoring CIs report the event when it occurs
  • D. Active monitoring takes place whether an event has occurred or not
Answer: D
Explanation:
Active monitoring refers to continuously checking the status of configuration items (CIs) and other components, regardless of whether an event has occurred. This type of monitoring proactively looks for potential issues by continuously evaluating the state of systems and services, unlike passive monitoring, which only reacts when an event is triggered.
Active Monitoring: This involves actively probing or querying systems to check their status, even if no event has occurred. It helps in detecting issues before they manifest into problems.
Option C ("Active monitoring takes place whether an event has occurred or not") is the correct answer because active monitoring involves continuous checks, independent of event occurrence.
Incorrect Options:
Option A: Active monitoring happens continuously, not just when an event occurs.
Option B: This describes passive monitoring, where CIs report an event once it happens.
Option D: Active monitoring does not require conditions to be met; it happens continuously.

NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following states the purpose of the service desk practice?
  • A. To ensure that the demand for incident resolution and service requests is captured
  • B. To ensure that user queries are captured, validated, and triaged for further processing
  • C. To provide a dedicated team to acknowledge and record user impacting incidents
  • D. To create and maintain a healthy work culture in the service desk team
Answer: A
Explanation:
The service desk practice in ITIL 4 is a key practice that serves as the main point of contact between service providers and users. Its primary role is to capture and manage the demand for incident resolution and service requests.
Definition: The service desk is responsible for:
Capturing demand for incident resolution and service requests.
Acting as the entry point and interface for all service-related interactions between users and service providers.
This ensures that all user incidents and service requests are recorded, processed, and escalated when necessary, aiming for efficient and quick resolution. ITIL 4 emphasizes that the service desk facilitates effective incident management, ensuring that any disruptions to services are minimized.
Option B ("To ensure that the demand for incident resolution and service requests is captured") perfectly reflects this definition as it highlights the core function of capturing demand for both incident resolution and service requests. This aligns with the ITIL 4 definition of the service desk practice.
Incorrect Options:
Option A: While the service desk does acknowledge incidents, its purpose is broader than simply acknowledging and recording incidents.
Option C: Capturing and validating queries is part of what the service desk does, but this option is too narrow.
Option D: Maintaining a healthy work culture is important, but it is not the core purpose of the service desk practice.

NEW QUESTION # 135
......
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