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Ace Your Medical Tests AAPC-CPC Exam With Web-based Practice Tests
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Medical Tests American Academy of Professional Coders: Certified Professional Coder Sample Questions (Q44-Q49):NEW QUESTION # 44
A primary care physician is requesting a second opinion to determine which strain of Ebolavirus the patient has. The specimen is sent to a pathologist, who carefully examines it.
A written report is sent promptly back to the primary care physician, confirming Zaire Ebolavirus and recommending immediate isolation and emergency care. What code should be reported by the pathologist?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A clinical pathology consultation was rendered at the request of the primary care physician.
The consultation is considered high based on the level of medical decision making. The CDC describes Ebola disease as a "rare and often deadly illness." Therefore, the number and complexity of problems addressed is high, as is the management ofthe disease due to the decision to escalate this case to hospital level care. E/M codes can be billed only when a patient themself is evaluated by the provider. In this case, the pathologist only evaluated a specimen.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A 34-year-old established male patient presents for treatment to his lower back. He reports exacerbated symptoms due to lifting heavy materials at work. The osteopath performs a problem-focused history and exam followed by manipulative treatment to the lumbar and sacral region of the spine. What procedure(s) should the osteopath report?
- A. 99212-25, 97140x2
- B. 99212-25, 98925
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Osteopathic manipulation services do not include evaluation and management services.
Although the patient's treatment has already been established, the osteopathic physician has enough supporting documentation to report a separate evaluation and management code.
Manipulation services rendered by an osteopathic physician are reported with CPT codes 98925-
98929. A chiropractor would report manipulative treatment to t'.vo body regions with CPT 98940, and a physical therapist would report CPT 97140.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Code the following surgical note:
54-year-old male is experiencing left-sided weakness and visual disturbance. An MRI revealed a lesion in the brain. He presents today for a biopsy. General anesthesia is given, and the area is shaved and cleaned. The brain lab system is synced with prior MRI images to confirm the accurate placement of burr hole drilling. A cutting needle is inserted into the frontal lobe, and lesion location is confirmed with the brain lab system. A portion of the lesion is obtained without complication. All instruments removed, and the incision is sutured.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The coding crosswalk for a brain biopsy leads to three CPT codes. CPT code 61140 is a burr hole through which a lesion in the brain can be located and biopsied. CPT code 61750 is a biopsy using a CT or MRI scanning technique to locate the lesion in the brain. CPT code 61751 is the same as 61750, with the addition of the use of CT or MRI scanning during the procedure to confirm the location of lesion and/or accurate placement of surgical instruments. In this case, that occurred with the brain lab system. CPT code 61575 is a biopsy done on a different anatomic location and does not describe this procedure.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A patient has a colonoscopy in which the provider removes three polyps from the transverse colon. The first polyp is removed by means of a hot snare technique, and the following two polyps are removed using hot biopsy forceps. What CPT code(s) should be reported for this encounter?
- A. 45385, 45384-59, 45384-59
- B. 45385, 45384-59
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
When coding colonoscopies, remember that the number of removal techniques is what has a bearing on code selection and not the number of lesions and/or polyps that are being removed. In this case, two techniques are being used: I) the snare technique (CPT 45385) and 2) the hot biopsy forceps technique (CPT 45384). Modifier 59 is appended onto the secondary code to indicate that separate polyps '.vere removed by two different techniques. CPT 45388 is reported when a provider uses any methods other than snare and hot biopsy forceps to remove a lesion and/or polyp.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A laboratory receives a pap smear as a screening for a patient's annual gmecological exam. A thin-layer preparation screened by an automated system with manual rescreening is performed. A pathologist interprets the results and confirms a diagnosis of high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. What should the laboratory report?
- A. G0148, R87.610
- B. 88175, 88141, ZOI.419,R87.613
- C. 88175, Z12.4
- D. G0148, G0141, Z12.4 R8.613
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CPT codes for cytopathologv smears are dependent on the payer and the method used to test the specimen. HCPC II G0148 does accurately describe the test method; however, this code is used for Medicare payers only. As the documentation does not specify that this is the case, it should be assumed that the carrier is non-Medicare. The appropriate non-Medicare CPT for this test method is 88175. CPT 88141 is always reported as a secondary code for the associated physician interpretation. Regarding the diagnosis, the primary ICD-IO-CM code should be synonymous with the reason for the encounter, which in this scenario would be the Omecological exam (ZOI.419).
Although Z12.4 does describe a screening of the cervix, it specifically is excluded from the diagnosis list "when the screening is part of general gynecological examination (ZOI.4-ZOI.42)." Any abnormal findings are reported as secondary and/or tertiary.
NEW QUESTION # 49
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