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MCCQE덤프샘플문제 덤프는 시험패스에 가장 좋은 공부자료Medical Council of Canada MCCQE 덤프구매전 한국어 온라인상담서비스부터 구매후 덤프 무료 업데이트버전제공 , Medical Council of Canada MCCQE시험불합격시 덤프비용 전액환불 혹은 다른 과목으로 교환 등 저희는 구매전부터 구매후까지 철저한 서비스를 제공해드립니다. Medical Council of Canada MCCQE 덤프는 인기덤프인데 지금까지 덤프를 구매한후 환불신청하신 분은 아직 없었습니다.
최신 MCCQE Part 1 MCCQE 무료샘플문제 (Q137-Q142):질문 # 137
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, presents for her 1st antenatal visit. She states she is at 26 weeks' gestation and is healthy. On abdominal examination, her fundus is palpated at the umbilicus. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?

• A. Intrauterine growth restriction
• B. Oligohydramnios
• C. Dating error
• D. Bicornuate uterus
• E. Partial hydatidiform mole
  

정답：C
설명：
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
At 20 weeks' gestation, the uterine fundus typically reaches the umbilicus. If the fundal height is lower than expected at a stated gestational age of 26 weeks, the most likely explanation-especially with no prior care- is a dating error.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"Fundal height at the umbilicus corresponds to ~20 weeks. In women lacking early prenatal care, dating errors are common causes of fundal height discrepancy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Routine Antenatal Care):
"Candidates must interpret fundal height and reconcile discrepancies with gestational age." IUGR and oligohydramnios are possible but require imaging confirmation. Bicornuate uterus may cause fundal shape anomalies but not significant dating discrepancy. A mole (D) would increase, not decrease, size.
-

질문 # 138
You performed a surgical procedure on a 32-year-old woman for a herniated disk that was causing neurologic impairment. At the 8-month follow-up visit, she has healed well; however, she requests a prescription renewal of her narcotic analgesics (hydromorphone). Her pharmacy confirms that the patient adheres to the dosage you prescribed, that she has not consulted other physicians, and that her behavior has always been respectful.
You think that she no longer requires narcotic analgesics. Which one of the following approaches is most helpful to the patient?

• A. Counsel the patient regarding substance use disorder and arrange follow-up with her family physician.
• B. Advise the provincial or territorial agency responsible for following patients who have potential substance use disorders.
• C. Change the patient's prescription from short-acting hydromorphone to once-daily methadone.
• D. Decline the renewal of further hydromorphone and discharge the patient.
• E. Replace short-acting hydromorphone with transdermal fentanyl.
  

정답：A
설명：
The patient's pain is no longer medically justified for opioids, but there is no evidence of misuse. The most appropriate and supportive action is to explain concerns, provide education about opioid tapering or dependency, and transition care to her family physician for ongoing management.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Safe Prescribing and Opioid Stewardship" Section:
"When opioids are no longer indicated, engage the patient in a conversation about tapering and arrange appropriate follow-up. Coordinate care with primary providers when long-term management is needed." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Professionalism and Substance Use):
"Candidates must address the risk of dependency, counsel the patient, and ensure a safe transition to appropriate care without abrupt termination." Methadone (E) and fentanyl (A) are for opioid use disorder or chronic pain, not for tapering in low-risk patients. Discharging the patient (B) or reporting (C) is punitive and unnecessary.

질문 # 139
A 2-year-old boy is brought by his parents to your clinic because of sudden onset of high fever, refusal to drink, and drooling. Examination reveals cervical lymphadenopathy as well as multiple ulcers on the inner lips, tongue, and gums. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Acute epiglottitis
• B. Infectious mononucleosis
• C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
• D. Kawasaki disease
• E. Hand-foot and mouth disease
  

정답：C
설명：
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis caused by HSV-1 is common in toddlers. It presents with high fever, irritability, drooling, refusal to eat, and painful oral ulcers on the lips, gums, and tongue. Cervical lymphadenopathy is common.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Infectious Conditions in Children":
"Primary HSV-1 infection in children presents with high fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and painful oral ulcers (gingivostomatitis)." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 75-2: Infectious Diseases):
"Candidates must recognize viral exanthems and enanthems, including herpetic gingivostomatitis, based on clinical findings." Kawasaki (A) includes conjunctivitis, strawberry tongue, and extremity changes. Epiglottitis (B) presents with drooling but without oral ulcers. Mono (C) lacks the ulcerative pattern. Hand-foot-mouth (D) affects palms and soles, not inner lips and gums predominantly.

질문 # 140
An otherwise healthy 43-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a left breast mass. Six months ago, she underwent a bilateral breast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) after watching a television program on breast cancer prevention. An ultrasound-guided biopsy of a 1.5 cm massconfirmed, at the time, that she had fibroadenoma. The follow-up ultrasound now reveals a mass measuring 1.7 cm. Which one of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

• A. Repeat the biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.
• B. Proceed with needle-localized left lumpectomy.
• C. Order a MRI of both breasts to rule out anything else.
• D. Reassure the patient and reassess in 12 months.
• E. Administer prophylactic tamoxifen to decrease the risk of cancer.
  

정답：D
설명：
Fibroadenomas can grow slightly or fluctuate in size. A minimal increase (from 1.5 cm to 1.7 cm) over six months is clinically insignificant. No malignant features are reported, and the previous biopsy confirmed benign nature. Annual follow-up is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics and Gynecology, "Breast Disorders" Section:
"Fibroadenomas are benign breast masses that may slightly enlarge. Routine imaging follow-up at 6 to 12 months is appropriate for lesions with benign imaging and histology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-3: Breast Mass):
"Candidates must distinguish between benign and suspicious masses and determine appropriate intervals for follow-up imaging." Repeat biopsy (A) or surgery (B) is unwarranted without suspicious change. MRI (C) is not needed in stable, benign lesions. Tamoxifen (D) is not used for fibroadenomas.

질문 # 141
A 37-year-old woman presents to your clinic with frequent palpitations. She has no other symptoms and is quite active. Physical examination and resting electrocardiogram findings are normal. Which one of the following is the best next step?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. #-Blocker
• C. Holter monitoring
• D. Treadmill exercise test
  

정답：C
설명：
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The most appropriate next step for a patient with intermittent palpitations and a normal ECG is Holter monitoring (or event monitoring). This can capture and correlate symptoms with cardiac rhythm.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology, "Palpitations":
"Holter or event monitoring is indicated when the initial ECG is normal but the patient has episodic symptoms such as palpitations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-2: Arrhythmia):
"Candidates must use ambulatory ECG monitoring to investigate intermittent palpitations when resting ECG is unremarkable." Echocardiogram (A) assesses structural issues but not rhythm. #-blockers (B) should not be started without diagnosis. Stress testing (D) is for ischemia.

질문 # 142
......
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