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[Hardware] Free PDF 2026 Unparalleled MCCQE: MCCQE Part 1 Exam Exam Introduction

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【Hardware】 Free PDF 2026 Unparalleled MCCQE: MCCQE Part 1 Exam Exam Introduction

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q119-Q124):NEW QUESTION # 119
A 21-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 6-month history of unusual behavior. He believes that he has been specially chosen to found a new religion. He says he has seen visions of angels in his bedroom. He appears disheveled and malodorous. On further inspection, you note that he drinks 2 liters daily.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
  • A. Carbamazepine
  • B. Valproic acid
  • C. Risperidone
  • D. Electroconvulsive therapy
  • E. Cognitive behavior therapy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The patient presents with classic symptoms of schizophrenia: delusions, hallucinations, social withdrawal, and disorganized appearance. The first-line treatment is antipsychotic medication-risperidone is a well-tolerated option among second-generation antipsychotics.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Schizophrenia":
"Schizophrenia is treated with second-generation antipsychotics such as risperidone. These reduce positive symptoms like delusions and hallucinations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Psychotic Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize and manage schizophrenia with antipsychotics and distinguish from other mood or personality disorders." CBT (E) is supportive but not first-line. ECT (A) is used for severe depression or catatonia. Valproic acid (C) and carbamazepine (D) are mood stabilizers, not first-line for schizophrenia.
-

NEW QUESTION # 120
A 31-year-old nulligravid woman presents to your office after 5 months of attempting to get pregnant without success. Her menses are regular, and she is otherwise healthy. Her husband is healthy and has never fathered any children before. Which one of the following is the best next step?
  • A. Send her husband for a semen analysis
  • B. Reassure her and have her return after 12 months without conceiving
  • C. Order a follicle-stimulating hormone level on day 3 of her cycle
  • D. Advise her to adjust her diet and reduce her weight by 5%
  • E. Arrange a hysterosalpingography after her next menses
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 12 months of regular, unprotected intercourse in women under 35 years. Since she has been trying for only 5 months, reassurance is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology:
"Investigations for infertility in women under 35 should begin after 12 months of attempting to conceive, unless other risk factors are present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-1: Infertility):
"Candidates must apply appropriate timing and indications for infertility investigations based on patient age and history." Earlier testing is not warranted here. Options A-D are part of the infertility work-up but not before 12 months.

NEW QUESTION # 121
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, presents with a positive pregnancy test. Her previous pregnancy was associated with preeclampsia, and she delivered a 1000 g boy at 34 weeks' gestation. Her blood pressure is 130
/86 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best recommendation for this pregnancy?
  • A. Genetic assessment and counseling.
  • B. Accurate dating by ultrasound.
  • C. Prophylactic labetalol.
  • D. Complete bed rest starting at 20 weeks' gestation.
  • E. Amniocentesis for karyotyping.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growthrestriction. First- trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:
"In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:
"Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies." Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.

NEW QUESTION # 122
A 29-year-old man comes to the office for an initial visit. He is being treated for schizophrenia and epilepsy.
He has a 20 pack-year history of smoking. His medications are carbamazepine, clozapine, and quetiapine. In the past year, he has gained a considerable amount of weight. Asidefrom a BMI of 32, the results of his physical examination are unremarkable. Which one of the following conditions should he be investigated for?
  • A. Sleep apnea
  • B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  • C. Cushing disease
  • D. Acromegaly
  • E. Type 2 diabetes
Answer: E
Explanation:
Clozapine and quetiapine are associated with significant weight gain and increased risk of type 2 diabetes.
With a BMI of 32 and weight gain over the past year, screening for diabetes is appropriate and evidence- based.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Diabetes & Psychiatry Sections:
"Second-generation antipsychotics such as clozapine increase the risk of metabolic syndrome and type 2 diabetes. Regular screening is recommended for patients with these risk factors." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:
"Candidates should screen high-risk individuals, especially those on antipsychotics with weight gain, for diabetes using fasting glucose or HbA1c." While sleep apnea (C) is also possible, diabetes screening is the most appropriate and urgent next step in this patient. COPD (A) would present with respiratory symptoms. Cushing's (B) and acromegaly (E) are less common and have other distinct features.

NEW QUESTION # 123
A 53-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of believing his neighbor is poisoning him by pumping gas through his home's air vent. He appears distracted, irritable, and is speaking very quickly. He has a family history of depression. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  • A. Delirium
  • B. Brief psychotic disorder
  • C. Bipolar I disorder
  • D. Psychotic disorder secondary to traumatic brain injury
  • E. Malingering
Answer: C
Explanation:
This man exhibits a classic manic episode with psychotic features: persecutory delusions, distractibility, pressured speech, irritability, and possible grandiosity. The chronicity and mood symptoms are most consistent with Bipolar I disorder.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Mood Disorders" Section:
"Bipolar I disorder is characterized by episodes of mania, often with psychotic features.Symptoms include grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, distractibility, and mood-congruent delusions." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-1: Mood Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize mania and differentiate from brief psychosis or organic causes." Delirium (A) is acute, fluctuating, and involves impaired attention. Malingering (B) requires external gain.
Brief psychotic disorder (C) resolves within 1 month. Brain injury-related psychosis (E) would require a supporting history or findings.
(Part 2 )

NEW QUESTION # 124
......
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